Self-test for all
lectures and labs with 5 questions from each.
Answers at bottom.
QUESTION 1
In which phylum
would you place a shrimp?
A. Annelida.
B. Arthropoda.
C. Platyhelminthes.
D. Echinodermata.
E. Cnidaria.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 2
Where are the
hooks of a beef animal relative to the pins?
A. Distal.
B. Proximal
C. Posterior.
D. Ventral.
E. Anterior.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 3
Where is the dock
of a lamb relative to its loin?
A. Distal.
B. Anterior.
C. Ventral.
D. Dorsal.
E. Posterior.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 4
Where is the
belly of a pig relative to its loin?
A. Ventral.
B. Anterior.
C. Dorsal.
D. Posterior.
E. Distal.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 5
In which phylum
would you place a sea cucumber?
A. Chordata.
B. Mollusca.
C. Annelida.
D. Echinodermata.
E. Cnidaria.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 6
Which would you
NOT expect to find on Bos indicus?
A. Uniform colouration either white, grey or
black.
B. A prominent
dewlap.
C. A shoulder
hump composed mostly of fat.
D. A long face.
E. Drooping ears.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 7
There are many
indicators of the age of a chicken. Which would indicate a
young bird?
A. Soft sternal cartilage.
B. Dark
subcutaneous fat under the feather tracts.
C. Coarse skin.
D. Oil sac hard
and large.
E. Wrinkled comb
with blunt points.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 8
Which of the
following is the African buffalo?
A. Poephagus.
B. Bison.
C. Bubalus.
D. Syncerus.
E. Bibos.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 9
Where would you
most likely find a wild moufflon?
A. Hiamalayas.
B. Patagonia.
C. Canada.
D. Southern
Russia.
E. Mediterranean.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 10
Meleagris gallopavo is a?
A. Guinea fowl.
B. Muscovy duck.
C.
Rock cornish.
D. Aylesbury duck.
E. Turkey.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 11
One of the
following relating to prenatal development of lambs is NOT
correct.
Which one?
A. Competition
between twin and triplets foetus may retard growth.
B. C-R length is
a good indicator of age from 50 to 100 days gestation.
C. In competitive
situations, prenatal females show more retardation of growth
than males.
D. Undernutrition of the ewe during the first six weeks of
gestation causes a
severe decrease in
birth weight.
E. Birth weight
has a strong effect on the early postnatal growth of lambs.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 12
What animal takes
150 days to develop before birth?
A. Bison
B. Beef
C. Horse
D. Lamb
E. Pig
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 13
In the prenatal
development of a lamb, what is primarily responsible for
forming a vascular connection to the ewe?
A. Amnion.
B. Blastocoel.
C. Extraembryonic coelom.
D. Allantois.
E. Yolk sac.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 14
What forms a roof
over the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo?
A. Chorionic
folds.
B. Blastocoel.
C. Amniotic
folds.
D. Allantoic folds.
E. Trophoblast.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 15
What is the
innermost layer of cells in the trophoblast?
A. Endoderm.
B. Ectoderm.
C. Mesoderm.
D. Blastocoeloms.
E. Placenta.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 16
What marks the
anterior limit of the primitive streak?
A. Heart.
B. Neuropore.
C. Prosencephalon.
D. Paraxial
mesoderm.
E. Hensen's node.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 17
There are many
aspects to competence in a chick embryo.
Which is NOT true?
A. Competent
tissues do NOT need induction.
B. Competence may
be regionally specific.
C. Competent
tissues respond to inducers.
D. Tissues
lacking appropriate competence do NOT respond to inducers.
E. Competence may
be stage-specific.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 18
In the blastodisc of a chick, what gives rise to most of the
endoderm plus
some of the notochord?
A. Hypoblast.
B. Ectoblast.
C. Epiblast.
D. Endoblast.
E. Mesoblast.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 19
Located
immediately DORSAL to the notochord is the?
A. Paraxial
mesoderm.
B. Neural tube.
C. Endoderm.
D. Heart.
E. Vitelline vein.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 20
Which corresponds
to the developing chick's forebrain?
A. Metencephalon.
B. Mesencephalon.
C. Prosencephalon.
D. Rhombencephalon.
E. Myelencephalon.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 21
What is the
action of the Hox genes in a chick embryo?
A. Formation of
the eye.
B. Causes the
formation of the three main parts of the brain.
C. Determines the
position of the limb buds.
D. Determination
of the orientation of the antero-posterior axis.
E. Causes the
mesoderm to develop a hollow cavity filled with fluid.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 22
What forms the
epidermis in a bovine embryo?
A. Dermatome.
B. Myotome.
C. Scleretome.
D. Endoderm.
E. Ectoderm.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 23
Where in a pig
embryo would you expect to find somites?
A. Along left and
right sides of the neural tube.
B. In the limb
buds.
C. Forming
segmental blocks through the lateral plate mesoderm.
D. Arranged in
pairs dorsal and ventral to the neural tube.
E. Embedded in
pairs within the endoderm.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 24
The sclerotome of the pig embryo forms?
A. Vertebrae.
B. Dermis.
C. Muscle.
D. Spinal nerves.
E. Nerve cord.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 25
Which tissue is
formed from chondrogenic cells?
A. Cartilage.
B. Muscle.
C. Bone.
D. Fat.
E. Brain and
nerves.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 26
Which has both a
high ATIR and a high FTIR?
A. Double-muscled
cattle.
B. Beef animals
with muscles enlarged by exercise.
C. Fast-growing
pigs.
D. Dairy cattle.
E. Pigs with a
low birth weight.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 27
What initiates
muscle contraction when released into the synaptic cleft?
A. Acetylcholine.
B. Butylcholine.
C. Dendritic vesicles.
D. Butylcholinesterase.
E. Acetylcholinesterase.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 28
Peripheral nerves
have a complex structure. Which occurs on the surface of a
peripheral nerve?
A. Myelin.
B. Epineurium.
C. Axonal plasma
membranes.
D. Endoneurium.
E. Perineurium.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 29
Which of the
following best describes a motor unit?
A. A group of
motor neurons all connected with the same muscle.
B. A group of
muscle fibres located together in the same bundle of
muscle fibres.
C. A group of
axons innervating adjacent muscle fibres.
D. A group of
motor neurons all innervating the same group of muscle fibres.
E. A group of
muscle fibres all innervated by one motor neuron.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 30
The node of Ranvier is?
A. Part of the
axon hillock.
B. Where
dendrites are exposed between Schwann cells.
C. Where the
terminal axon contacts a muscle fibre.
D. Where the axon
is exposed between Schwann cells.
E. Where
dendrites join to the perikaryon of a motor neuron.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 31
Which is a gene
involved in muscle development?
A. Fibronectin.
B. TGF
C. IGF
D. Myogenin.
E. Calmodulin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 32
In the prenatal
development of muscle, which is marked by the transcription
of genes coding for typical muscle proteins?
A.
Differentiation.
B. Commitment.
C. Mitosis.
D. Maturation.
E. Innervation.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 33
Muscle
development on a foetal lamb involves many steps
which ultimately may
affect meat yield.
Which is the quantal division?
A. The quantal division occurs at the end of the mitotic cycle in
a premyoblast
when it becomes a myoblast.
B. The quantal division is the way in which all the myofibres in a muscle are
divided into motor
units.
C. The quantal division describes the number of secondary fibres formed on each
myotube.
D. The quantal division is the number of times a myoblast divides.
E. The quantal division is the way in which a myofibre
is subdivided so that all
its nuclei share in
protein synthesis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 34
Which of the
following statements relating to myoblast fusion is
NOT correct?
A. Myoblast fusion is triggered by calcium ions.
B. Myoblast fusion is inhibited by magnesium ions.
C. Myoblast fusion may depend on the density of the cells -
the number of cells
packed into the
developing muscle.
D. Myoblast fusion is preceeded by a
period of cell to cell recognition during
which myoblasts can be dispersed with EDTA.
E. Myoblast fusion is initiated by the nervous system.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 35
Many curious
things happen or do not happen during the prenatal development
of muscle.
Which of the following is NOT correct?
A. Once a muscle
is attached to the periosteum of a bone, this is a
permanent
connection and
cannot move over the bone surface.
B. Myofibres may originate from either myotubes
OR secondary fibres.
C. Prenatal
muscle development involves the death and degeneration of many
myoblasts.
D. Myotubes become innervated and start to contract before
secondary fibres
become innervated.
E. The stretching
of a developing muscle by the prenatal skeleton has a strong
influence on the
future arrangement of myofibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 36
Amylose stained by iodine is used in which histochemical reaction?
A. SDH.
B. Myofibre capillaries.
C. ATPase.
D. Phosphorylase.
E. Lipid
staining.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 37
The redness of
meat is related to the aerobic activity of living muscle.
Which is NOT
correct?
A. Muscles used
for respiration and chewing have low levels of aerobic metabolism
in the living
animal.
B. Muscles with
strong anaerobic activity in the living animal can manage for a
while without
blood-borne oxygen.
C. Muscles with
strong aerobic metabolism in the living animal use blood-borne
oxidation for
complete oxidation of substrates.
D. Muscle
capillaries are located on the surfaces of myofibres
and red muscles
have more
capillaries than white muscles.
E. Incomplete
oxidation of muscle carbohydrates does not require oxygen from
haemoglobin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 38
Red and white
muscle is a concept widely used by meat traders and consumers.
Which of the
following statements is most correct?
A. In a cured ham
the white muscles are located centrally around bones such as the
femur.
B. All chicken
muscles are fast-contracting because they are all white muscles.
C. Muscle used
for respiration or posture are typically fast-contracting.
D. All beef
muscles are slow-contracting because they are red muscles.
E. In a species
which does not have particularly high levels of myoglobin
in its
skeletal myofibres it is often possible to see slow-contracting
muscles with
more pigmentation
than fast-contracting muscles.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 39
Which would you
NOT expect to find in alpha-R or Type II red myofibres?
A. Strong phosphorylase activity.
B. Numerous
mitochondria.
C. Acid-stable ATPase.
D. Alkali-stable ATPase activity.
E.
Strong SDH activity.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 40
Which histochemical type of myofibre
has the slowest contraction speed?
A. Type I.
B. Alpha-W.
C. White.
D. Alpha-R.
E. Intermediate.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 41
Which statement
relating to rapid muscle growth in young meat animals is
NOT correct?
A. Rapid muscle
growth in young meat animals receives a major contribution from
hypertrophy of
white myofibres.
B. Rapid muscle
growth may not contribute much to meat quality because it
mostly originates
from white myofibres.
C. Recruitment of
new white myofibres contributes to rapid muscle
growth.
D. All myofibres exhibit hypertrophy in fast-growing young meat
animals.
E. Red myofibres are required for postural muscle activity in
young animals and
they make the
largest contribution to rapid muscle growth.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 42
Which of the
following statements concerning crossed-reinnervation
experiments
is NOT correct?
A. If a slow
nerve is grafted onto a fast muscle it will change the activity
pattern towards a
continuous but low level of activity.
B. If the nerve
to a slow muscle is cut and allowed to regenerate back into the
slow muscle the
loss of fequent stimulation causes the slow muscle to
increase
its contraction
speed. This occurs because fast muscles
normally receive less
frequent
stimulation than slow muscle.
C. If a slow
nerve is grafted onto a denervated fast muscle it
decreases the
speed of muscle
contraction.
D. If a fast
nerve is grafted onto a denervated slow muscle it
increases the
speed of muscle
contraction.
E. If a slow
nerve is grafted onto a fast muscle but axonal regeneration fails
then all the myofibres in the muscle will atrophy.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 43
Which of the
following is NOT correct in relation to splayleg
piglets?
A. Splayleg is caused by inadequate hindlimb
adductor muscles.
B. Normal piglets
without symptoms of splayleg have a rapid postnatal
recruitment
of red myofibres.
C. Splayleg piglets can be saved by loosely tying their hindlimbs together
enabling the
piglets to escape suffocation by the sow.
D. Splayleg piglets are unable to make rapid locomotory movements with their
hindlimbs
because of a deficiency of white (Type II) myofibres.
E. Splayleg primarily affects the hindlimbs
of piglets immediately after
farrowing.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 44
Which of the
following statements is NOT correct?
A. The cells
insulating axons with myelin are called Schwann cells.
B. Schwann
discovered secondary fibres in the prenatal
development of pig muscle.
C. Schwann showed
that multinucleate myofibres were derived by
multiplication
of nuclei without
division of the cytoplasm.
D. Schwann
discovered myotubes in the prenatal development of
pig muscle.
E. Schwann proved
all animal bodies are an assembly of single cells - most of
which are mononucleate.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 45
Meat from older
animals is different to that from young animals. Which
statement IS correct?
A. Pork is
unusual relative to beef because there are no changes in myofibre
histochemistry
during growth and pork from young pigs is almost identical to
pork from older
pigs.
B. Veal has a
stronger taste than beef because it contains less Type II
myofibres
than beef.
C. Mutton has a
weaker taste than lamb because of the recruitment of fast
myofibres.
D. Young animals
have less myoglobin than old animals. This makes the meat more
stronger in taste
when obtained from young animals.
E. Postural
demands increase as animals become heavier and fatter. There is a
recruitment of red myofibres in many muscles.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 46
Which opens onto
the myofibre surface?
A. Longitudinal
tubules.
B. Mitochondria.
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D. Transverse
tubules.
E. Sarcoplasm.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 47
What is the name
of the connective tissue around individual myofibres?
A. Aponeurosis
B. Epimysium
C. Endomysium
D. Tendon
E. Perimysium
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 48
What is the best
description of the cause of rigor mortis?
A. When ATP is
depleted and myosin molecule heads lock onto actin.
B. When ATP is resynthesized from ADP and causes the meat to soften.
C. When ATP is
used in the polymerization of G-actin.
D. The increase
in muscle extensibility which occurs after slaughter.
E. Loss of muscle
extensibility caused by coagulation of myosin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 49
Where along the sarcomere do BOTH thick and thin myofilaments
appear in
RELAXED muscle?
A. In the I band.
B. At the edges
of the A band.
C. In the Z-line.
D. In the H-zone.
E. At the midlength of the A band.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 50
With a polarizing
microscope, which appears most bright?
A. H zone
B. M line
C. I band
D. A band
E. Z line
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 51
Calcium is bound
within the sarcoplasmic reticulum by?
A. CapZ.
B. Calsequestrin.
C. Troponin.
D. Gelsolin.
E. Villin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 52
Which protein
responds DIRECTLY to the presence of calcium ions when muscle
contraction is initiated?
A. Actin.
B. Myosin.
C. Troponin.
D. Nebulin.
E. Tropomyosin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 53
Which is the best
description for the location of transverse tubules?
A. Within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. Within
myofibrils - opening onto the myofibril surface.
C. Running
longitudinally along myofibrils.
D. Between myofilaments - opening onto the myofibril surface.
E. In the myofibre sarcoplasm - opening
onto the myofibre surface.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 54
What part of the
myosin molecule protrudes from the thick myofilament?
A. HMM-1
B. Tropomyosin
C. LMM
D. Troponin
E. HMM-2
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 55
Where is the sarcoplasmic reticulum located in pork?
A. Around each myofilament.
B. Around each
myofibril.
C. Around thick myofilaments but not thin myofilaments.
D. Around each myofibre.
E. Around each
fasciculus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 56
Where along the sarcomere are most of the enzymes used in glycogenolysis?
A. Level with the I band.
B. Level with the
A band.
C. Uniformly
along the sarcomere.
D. Level with the
H-zone.
E. At the midlength of the A band.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 57
Glycogenin is?
A. An enzyme
responsible for glycogenolysis.
B. Glucose units
released by debranching enzyme
C. Glucose units
released by phosphorylase
D. A protein
acting as the starting point for a new glycogen granule.
E. A
polysaccharide made of glucose units.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 58
What isoenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase
dominates the major muscles of a pork
chop?
A. LDH-5
B. LDH-4
C. LDH-2
D. LDH-1
E. LDH-3
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 59
Which of the
following statements is NOT correct?
A. Oxidative phsophorylation occurs in the mitochondrial membrane.
B. Citrate is
formed in aerobic mitochondria.
C. Pyruvate cannot be used in anaerobic meat.
D. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA
in mitochondria.
E. Lactate may be
produced in anaerobic living muscle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 60
Debranching enzyme acts where in the structure of
glycogen?
A. 2-3
B. 1-4
C. 5-6
D. 4-5
E. 1-6
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 61
One of the
following statements relating to electrical stimulation of beef
is NOT correct. Which?
A. Red muscles
respond more strongly than white muscles.
B. Resistivity of
meat is inversely proportional to temperature.
C. The effects of
electrical stimulation persist after the stimulatory current
is stopped.
D. Electrode
polarization DECREASES the effectiveness of electrical stimulation.
E. Electrical
stimulation causes swelling of the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 62
Which of the
following has NO effect on cold-shortening?
A. Temperature of
the meat cooler after development of rigor mortis.
B. Whether a
muscle is red or white.
C. Skeletal
restraints on a muscle.
D. Fat cover on a
carcass.
E. Size and type
of carcass affecting its surface to volume ratio.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 63
What is the
primary purpose of electrical stimulation?
A. To increase
fluid losses before the meat is cooked so the consumer experiences
lower cooking
losses.
B. To shorten sarcomeres and give the meat a compact, attractive
appearance.
C. To render an animal
unconscious before it is exsanguinated.
D. To reduce the
risk of cold shortening when carcasses are refrigerated.
E. To darken the
muscle colour to get a higher grade.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 64
What is the absolute
refractory period of an axon in a muscle from a
recently slaughtered beef animal?
A. Only responds
to a high frequency stimulation.
B. Responds to
all stimuli.
C. Only responds
to a very strong stimulus.
D. Only responds
to a low frequency stimulation.
E. Completely inexcitable to a second stimulus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 65
How would you
describe a beef animal giving rise to a muscle strip showing
shortening at room temperature in a rigorometer?
A. Animal was
exhausted.
B. Animal was
starved.
C. Animal was
calm at slaughter and well-rested.
D. Animal
struggled at slaughter.
E. Animal very
likely to produce tender meat.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 66
If beef becomes
dark-cutting - what can you deduce about the animal which
produced it?
A. It was not
properly stunned before exsanguination.
B. It had
excessive reflex activity during slaughter.
C. It entered the
abattoir without much glycogen in its muscles.
D. It was well
fed and resistant to stress.
E. It struggled
during slaughter.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 67
Water
distribution in meat is a complex subject.
Which is NOT correct?
A. DFD meat has a lower water content than PSE meat.
B. Spaces between
myofilaments are decreased in PSE meat.
C. Spaces between
myofibrils are increased in PSE meat.
D. Myofibrils are
turgid in DFD meat.
E. Spaces between
myofibres are increased in PSE meat.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 68
If a pig exhibits
dyspnea - what does it mean?
A. Pale skin with
blue colouration.
B. Blushing.
C. Lethargy.
D. Trembling of
the limbs.
E. Rapid shallow
breathing breathing.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 69
Which of the
following is NOT a significant cause of PSE meat production from
normal pigs in Ontario?
A. Cold water
shower before slaughter.
B. Mixing pigs so
they fight before slaughter.
C. Cold winter
weather.
D. Use of an
electric prod to move pigs in the abattoir before slaughter.
E. Concussion
with a captive bolt causing major post mortem reflex activity.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 70
If beef has a pH
of 6.5 at 24 hours after slaughter - what can you predict
about its quality?
A. It will appear
bright red.
B. It will be
surrounded by the fluid it has released.
C. It will have a
high weight loss when cooked.
D. It will appear
very dark.
E. It will have a
soft texture.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 71
What would you
expect to find on colourimetry of DFD pork?
A. Very low %Y.
B. Very low
chromaticity coordinate y.
C. A shift in the
isobestic point.
D. Very low
chromaticity coordinate x.
E. Very high
chromaticity coordinate y.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 72
Which colour light is most strongly absorbed by myoglobin?
A. Green
B. Red AND orange
C. Red
D. Yellow
E. Orange
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 73
Which dietary
vitamin retards the oxidation of myoglobin in meat?
A. Vitamin D.
B. Vitamin E.
C. Vitamin A.
D. Vitamin C.
E. Vitamin B.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 74
What colour is the oxidized form of myoglobin?
A. Brown
B. Heat-stable
pink
C. Purple
D. Green
E. Bright red
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 75
Meat which fails
to develop a brown colour when cooked causes concern
among
consumers.
Which is least likely to be involved in the formation of a
heat-stable pink pigment in cooked meat?
A. Breed of the
animal.
B. Nitrite in
ground water obtained from a well.
C. Carbon
monoxide inhaled by animals from truck exhaust fumes.
D. Nitric oxide
in oven gases.
E. High levels of
nitrites in added spices.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 76
What is pyridinoline?
A. A substance
produced in fibroblast vesicles and exuded as procollagen.
B. A linkage
between tropocollagen and elastin.
C. A rare amino
acid found in elastin.
D. A
non-reducible cross-link formed by glycosylation.
E. Found in
pancreatic enzymes for the digestion of elastin.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 77
Which is used to
determine the collagen content of meat?
A. Alanine.
B. Hydroxyproline.
C. Desmosine.
D. Glycine.
E. Glutamic acid.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 78
What must an
animal have in its diet in order to form desmosine?
A. High proline levels.
B. High levels of
both selenium and vitamin E.
C. Copper.
D. Mercury.
E. High protein
levels.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 79
There are
connective tissues around bundles of myofibres in
meat. What
are they called?
A. Epimysium.
B. Tropocollagen.
C. Endomysium.
D. Perimysium.
E.
Type III collagen.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 80
Which is NOT
correct in relation to the connective tissues of meat?
A. Collagen fibres are birefringent.
B. Collagen fibres are composed of collagen fibrils.
C. Collagen fibres stretch by about 5% under tension.
D. Collagen fibres are highly branched.
E. Collagen fibres are extracellular.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 81
At which
wavelength would you expect the lowest reflectance from cooked beef?
A. 420 nm
B. 480 nm
C. 500 nm
D. 630 nm
E. 600 nm
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 82
Educating consumers
is important for maintaining meat sales.
Which of the
following statements is NOT true?
A. Hamburger
should be completely cooked all through.
This is to ensure it is
safe to eat - not
to make it tender.
B. Well done beef
filet is more tender than beef filet cooked rare.
C. Expensive beef
steak may become tough if it is stewed.
D. Rapid grilling
of beef with a high connective tissue content will
result in
very tough meat.
E. Expensive beef
steak generally becomes tougher the longer it is cooked.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 83
Which of the
following poses the greatest health risk?
A. A beef
hamburger with a pink interior. No spices were added.
B. A prime rib
roast of beef kept in a butcher's cooler for 5 weeks after
slaughter. One surface was black and had a dusting of
white mould. It
was cooked INTACT
at high heat. The outside was well done
but the inside
is still red when
eaten.
C. Chicken breast
cooked in a gas oven. It is white inside
but pink outside.
D. A beef filet
cooked with bacon wrapped around it. It
is a little pink on the
inside but very
pink on the outside - but only where the bacon touched the
meat. Where there was no bacon covering the meat -
the outside is dark brown.
E. A pork chop
which had a sour smell when raw (it was left wrapped in the trunk
of a car on a warm
day). But it was overcooked. Burnt on the outside and
dry and grey
inside.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 84
Which
of the following does NOT contribute to the brown colour
of well cooked
beef?
A. Maillard reaction products
B. Haematin di-imadazole complexes
C. Denatured globin nicotinamide hemichrome
D. Metmyochromogen
E. Metmyoglobin
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 85
Which best
describes the Warner-Bratzler method for measuring
meat toughness?
A. A core of meat
placed in the triangular opening of blade and pulled through
a tight slot.
B. Measuring the
forces needed to push bulk meat through a meat grinder.
C. A core of meat
sheared between two blunt blades.
D. A battery of
needles pushed into the surface of a large sample of meat.
E. A core of meat
pulled apart by two jaws.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 86
Muscular steatosis should never be seen in the meat counter. What is it?
A. Replacement of
myofibres by adipose cells.
B. Meat without
much taste because it is very lean.
C. Expansion of intermuscular fat.
D. An enlargement
of subcutaneous fat deposits over the animal's hindquarters.
E. Omental fat not removed in the abattoir.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 87
Which of the
following statements relating to adipose tissue in meat animals
is NOT correct?
A. The water
content of fat is much lower than that of lean muscle.
B. Adipose cells
are surrounded by a meshwork of Type III collagen fibres.
C. Mature adipose
cells have very little cytoplasm.
D. Mature adipose
cells have only one nucleus and this never divides.
E. Adipose tissue
has a poor circulation because it is primarily a storage tissue.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 88
Accumulation of
fat in poultry is important. Which
statement is NOT correct?
A. Growth of the
abdominal fat pad starts with hypertrophy of adipose cells and
concludes with
hyperplasia of adipose cells.
B. Broilers
typically have fewer and smaller adipose cells than layers.
C. Adipose cells
of poultry have very little capability for lipogenesis.
D. Adipose cells
in poultry may hypertrophy by capturing lipids released by
digestion in the
gut.
E. Adipose cells
in poultry may hypertrophy by capturing lipids synthesized in
the liver.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 89
Adipose cells may
develop from a variety of cources. Which is the MATURE cell?
A. Unilocular.
B.
Fibroblast-like.
C. Gland-like.
D. Mesenchymal.
E. Multilocular.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 90
Where in a beef
carcass are we trying to deposit fat?
A. Intermuscular.
B. Omental fat.
C. Kidney fat.
D. Mesenteric
fat.
E. Intramuscular.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 91
What occurs when
a sow produces milk after farrowing?
A. Decreased lipogenesis and increased lipolysis.
B. Increased lipogenesis and decreased lipolysis.
C. Increases of
both lipogenesis and lipolysis.
D. Decreases of
both lipogenesis and lipolysis.
E. Increased
deposition of carcass fat.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 92
Which of the
following statements relating to the quality of fat in pork is
NOT correct?
A. The aroma of
fish oil in a pig's diet may be carried onward into the pig's fat.
B. Greasy pork
fat has a low melting point.
C. Linoleic acid is used for feeding pigs because it makes the
fat firm and white.
D. Omega-3 fatty
acids are thought beneficial by many consumers but their
presence in pork
fat may cause unpleasant odours after storage.
E. Auto-oxidation
and the formation of unpleasant odours increases when
large
numbers of the
bonds in fatty acids are unsaturated.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 93
Linoleic acid has how many double bonds?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 5
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 94
Which of the
following statements relating to fatty acids in meat is NOT true?
A. Fatty acid
melting points are proportional to chain length.
B. The presence
of unsaturated bonds lowers the melting point of fatty acids.
C. The majority
of fatty acids in meat have an even number of carbon atoms.
D. The presence
of unsaturated bonds straightens the structure of fatty acids.
E. Fat in meat
animals is liquid at body temperature.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 95
Which of the
following statements relating to lacteals is NOT correct?
A. Lacteals are
located in the villi of the small intestine.
B. Lacteals
secrete enzymes into the small intestine.
C. Lacteals
eventually lead to the venous system.
D. Lacteals
collect chylomicra.
E. Lacteals are
blind-ending lymphatic capillaries.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 96
Which of the
following statements relating to animal growth is NOT correct?
A. Animal growth
occurs when catabolism exceeds anabolism.
B. All living
animals exhibit both anabolism and catabolism - even when their
growth is complete.
C. von Bertallanffy's growth equation is based on the balance of
catabolism and
anabolism.
D. The half lives
of major proteins in meat are mostly several days in duration.
E. When animals
are at a constant weight: catabolism = anabolism.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 97
Which of the
following methods is used most often industrially to measure the
fatness of meat animals?
A.
Computer-assisted tomography
B. Nuclear
magnetic resonance
C. Specific
gravity
D. Ultrasonics
E. Photogrammetry
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 98
Body weight
raised to a power is proportional to basal metabolism. What power?
A. 0.5
B. 0.95
C. 0.33
D. 0.66
E. 0.75
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 99
Which of the following
growth curves is sigmoidal, becomes
asymptotic and is asymmetrical?
A. Autocatalytic
B. Brody's
C. Time-based
D. von Bertalanffy
E. Robertson's
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 100
Which
of the following is NOT true for the effect of light on the growth of
poultry?
A. Chickens
exhibit maximum growth rates if they fill their crops as soon as
the light becomes
bright at the start of a bright photoperiod.
B. Increased feed
intake and increased feed efficiency gives maximum growth and
is strongly
affected by lighting.
C. Illumination
has a strong effect on circadian rhythms in poultry.
D. Chickens may
exhibit fairly rapid growth if kept at a constant low level of
illumination but
this is not accompanied by increased feed efficiency.
E. Feed
conversion efficiency is strongly affected by illumination in poultry.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 101
Where on a pork
carcass are muscle groups with the lowest allometric
growth
ratios?
A. Ham
B. Belly
C. Loin
D. Jowl
E. Shoulder
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 102
Muscle groups
with the lowest allometric growth ratios are found
where on
a beef carcass?
A. Crest
B. Hock
C. Dewlap
D. Paunch
E. Loin
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 103
Domestication is
associated with changes in allometry. Which is NOT true?
A. Domestication
is often associated with a relative decrease in size of the
adrenal cortex.
B. Domestication
of sheep is often associated with increased convexity of the
nose caused by
negative allometry of the lower jaw.
C. Brains of
domestic pigs are relatively larger than those of wild pigs.
D. Domestication
of ducks has been associated with changes in the pituitary-
adrenal system.
E. Domestication
is usually associated with an increase in activity of the gonads.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 104
Which
of the following regions of the beef carcass contains muscle groups
with the highest allometric
growth ratios?
A. Shoulder
B. Paunch
C. Loin
D. Elbow
E. Thigh
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 105
Poultry exhibit allometric growth.
Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Allometric growth of muscle groups along the vertbral column is inconspicuous.
B. Nutrition has
little effect on the relative distribution and allometric
growth
ratios of muscles
in poultry.
C. Early
deposition of subcutaneous fat is encouraged in chickens and turkeys.
D. Leg muscles of
ducks show a strong positive allometric growth.
E. Late
deposition of subcutaneous fat is encouraged in ducks and geese.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 106
How was Hammond's
model of nutrient energy distribution in growing animals
modified to fit what is observed in modern cattle?
A. Fat no longer
has the lowest priority.
B. Bone and
muscle now have equal priority.
C. Fat and muscle
now have equal priority.
D. Vital organs
have been dropped from the model.
E. Energy
distribution is now viewed as a combination of nutrient availability
and tissue
capacity.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 107
Where is the
time-tally control mechanism for animal growth located?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Sympathetic
ganglia
C. Medulla
oblongata
D. Cardiac
pace-maker
E. Cerebellum
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 108
Which of the
following statements relating to the control of feed intake is
NOT correct?
A. Hypothalamic
feed-back circuits are involved in the control of feed intake.
B. Endorphins and
enkaphalins are peptides involved in the control of
feed intake.
C. Ruminants use proprionate sensors in or near the rumen to control
roughage
intake.
D. Diets with low
levels of complex carbohydrates and high levels of protein
tend to increase
the growth of the gastrointestinal tract.
E. Ruminants use
acetate sensors in or near the rumen to control roughage intake.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 109
Insulin has many
functions in the control of animal growth.
Which is NOT true?
A. Insulin
decreases amino acid transport across cell membranes.
B. Insulin
modulates RNA synthesis in the cell nucleus.
C. Insulin
increases glucose transport across cell membranes.
D. Insulin
activates ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
E. Insulin
modulates DNA synthesis in the cell nucleus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 110
Which
of the following general statements relating to animal growth is NOT
correct?
A. Animals seem
to 'know' what weight they should be at a certain age.
B. The action of
insulin is balanced against the number of insulin receptors and
their capacity for
binding insulin.
C. Animals on a
restricted diet often use proteins as a source of energy.
D. Insulin
activates the energy capturing system of cells.
E. Stress
increases fat deposition.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 111
Which
of the following statements is NOT correct in relation to muscles
growing postnatally in
meat animals?
A. Animals on a
high plane of nutrition typically develop larger diameter
myofibres
than comparable animals on a low plane of nutrition.
B. Myofibres tend to be prismatic in shape - this makes it
difficult to measure
myofibre
diameter.
C. Sarcomere length has no effect on myofibre
diameter.
D. Entire males
typically have larger diameter myofibres than
comparable females.
E. Myofibres often decrease in diameter at their ends.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 112
In the radial
growth of myofibres, where are new myofilaments added?
A. At the
neuromuscular junction.
B. Around the
outside of myofibrils.
C. In the central
axis of myofibrils.
D. Only at the
ends of myofibres.
E. Only under the
cell membrane of the myofibre.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 113
What is the
involvement of calcium ions in myofibrillar growth?
A. Myofibrils can
only develop new myofilaments in the absence of
calcium ions.
B. Calcium ions
activate protein synthesis in the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
C. Calcium ions
activate the synthesis of messenger RNA from DNA.
D. Growth of the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes calcium ions to accumulate in
the central axes of
myofibrils where they cause relaxation so that new
myofilaments
can be added.
E. Accumulation
of new myofilaments lengthens the diffusion pathway
for calcium
ions. Shearing
occurs as the outside of the myofibril contracts before
the central axis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 114
Which of the
following features is NOT true for satellite cells?
A. They are
usually located in a depression on the myofibre
surface.
B. Their nucleoli
are difficult to see.
C. The cytoplasm
of satellite cells is separated from the cytoplasm (= sarcoplasm)
of myofibres by TWO cell membranes.
D. They have a
small amount of acidophilic cytoplasm.
E. They are beneath
the endomysium.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 115
Which of the
following statements relating to the nuclei along a myofibre
is NOT correct?
A. The incidence
of satellite cells is greater in old animals than in young
animals.
B. Some nuclei
are truly inside the myofibre while others are on the
myofibre
surface.
C. Nuclei are
more frequent at the ends of the myofibre.
D. In a
transverse section of a myofibre, fewer nuclei are
detected in thin
sections than in
thick sections.
E.
Slow-contracting myofibres tend to have
proportionally more nuclei than
fast-contracting myofibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 116
Which of the
following statements relating to longitudinal growth of myofibres
is NOT correct?
A. Pennate muscles have myofibres
attached at an angle - often to an intramuscular
tendon.
B. The length of myofibres is determined from the length of the fasciculi in which
they are located.
C. Once formed, myofilaments do not grow
in length.
D. When
myofibrils grow in length, new sarcomeres are always
added to the ENDS
of the myofibrils.
E. When myofibres grow in length, new sarcomeres
are always added at the ENDS
of the myofibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 117
What is the
explanation for increases found in the number of myofibres
at the
midlength of parallel-fibred muscles during the growth
of pigs?
A. Formation of
new myofibres from myotubes.
B. Decreases in
fascicular length.
C. Formation of
new myofibres from myoblasts.
D. Growth of intrafascicularly terminating myofibres
at a faster rate than the
overall length of
the muscle.
E. Formation of
new myofibres from secondary fibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 118
What happens to
the length of extramuscular tendon relative to the
length of
the muscle belly during longitudinal growth?
A. The extramuscular tendon shows more longitudinal growth than
the muscle belly.
B. There is no
relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle and the
length of its extramuscular tendon.
C. Extramuscular tendon length grows at the same rate as the
length of the muscle
belly.
D. The length of
the muscle belly increases at a faster rate than that of the
extramuscular
tendon.
E. There is no
relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle and the
length of its
intramuscular tendon.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 119
Which statement
is NOT correct in relation to muscle growth in turkeys?
A. Growth of the sartorius reaches a maximum at 15 weeks.
B. Pennate muscles in turkeys grow in both length and width.
C. The supracoracoideus of turkeys is a pennate
muscle.
D. An osteofascial compartments limits the size of the supracoracoideus.
E. Females
develop longer muscles than males.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 120
Ewes fed a high
energy ration grow fast. Where does the
extra muscle appear?
A. In the length
of the whole Longissimus dorsi.
B. In the depth
of the Longissimus dorsi.
C. At the
posterior end of the Longissimus dorsi.
D. In the width
of the Longissimus dorsi.
E. At the
anterior end of the Longissimus dorsi.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 121
How is
reproduction affected by the double-muscled condition in cattle?
A. High
lactation.
B. Wide pelvic
opening in the cow.
C. Good nursing
of the calf.
D.
Underdevelopment of the reproductive tract in both sexes.
E. Shorter
gestation period.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 122
Which best
describes double-muscling in cattle?
A. Carcass
muscles only have increased apparent numbers of myofibres. The real
number is
unchanged.
B. Carcass
muscles have increases in both apparent AND real numbers of myofibres.
C. There are no
extra myofibres in double-muscled cattle. This is why the
condition is called
muscular hypertrophy.
D. Double-muscled
animals have twice as many muscles as normal cattle.
E. Carcass
muscles have extra myofibres but this does not
increase the apparent
number of myofibres because intrafascicularly
terminating myofibres are shorter
than normal.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 123
Which of the
following is INCREASED in double-muscled cattle?
A. Collagen
content in bone.
B. Growth rate.
C. Collagen
content in muscle.
D. Weight of
hide.
E. Susceptibility
to heat stress.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 124
How many pro-otic segments in the bovine embryo?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 1
E. 5
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 125
Where would you
find a muscle with a normal number of myofibres in
double-muscled cattle?
A. Longissimus dorsi.
B. Cutaneous muscle under the skin.
C. Tongue muscle.
D. Sartorius
muscle.
E. Extraocular muscle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 126
Muscle:bone
ratios are fairly important in carcass composition. Which is
NOT correct?
A. The muscle to
bone ratio increases as cattle get fatter.
B. The muscle to
bone ratio increases as cattle grow older.
C. Cannon bone
weight relative to carcass weight is a reliable indicator of
muscle:bone
ratio in a commercial beef carcass.
D. Animal age has
a major effect on muscle:bone
ratio.
E. Muscles
typically start to accumulate intramuscular fat once the longitudinal
growth of bones
ceases. This tends to increase muscle:bone
ratios.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 127
Which of the
following is formed by intramembranous ossification?
A. Ischium.
B. Sternum.
C. Frontal bone.
D. Rib.
E. Femur.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 128
What is the name
for the type of growth shown by chondrocytes when
they form
new matrix which pushes the cells apart?
A. Appositional
growth.
B. Ossification.
C. Matrix
hypertrophy.
D. Interstitial
growth.
E. Sigmoid
growth.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 129
What are bone canaliculi?
A. The canals by
which arteries pass through compact bone.
B. The cavity in
which osteocytes are located.
C. Structures
connecting the periostium to the bone matrix.
D. Very small
tubes through the bone matrix between lacunae.
E. The large
canal containing an artery in the axis of a Haversian
system.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 130
What is the name
for the shaft of a long bone in a beef animal?
A. Symphysis.
B. Epiphyseal plate.
C. Diaphysis.
D. Epiphysis.
E. Condyle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 131
IGF has a range
of effects important in meat animal production.
Which is
NOT true?
A. IGF is present
in hypophysectomized animals injected with STH.
B. IGF stimulates
glucose transport.
C. A low
concentration of insulin has similar effects to a high concentration
of IGF.
D. IGF is not
blocked by anti-insulin serum.
E. IGF is bound
by IGFBP in blood plasma.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 132
STH has a major
effect on meat production. Which is NOT
true?
A. Anabolic
steroids may increase STH production in ruminants.
B. Diethystilboestrol may increase production of somatotrophin in cattle.
C. STH conserves
muscle at the expense of fat.
D. STH is
released in surges during the day.
E. Early maturing
beef breeds generally have very high levels of STH.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 133
Which is another
name for somatomedin C?
A. IGFBP
B. Somatostatin
C. IGF-2
D. IGF-1
E. STH
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 134
Which of the
following hormones was originally called sulphation
factor?
A. STH
B. Cortisol
C. Somatotrophin
D. IGF
E. Insulin
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 135
In myofibres of meat animals, messenger RNA production from myofibre nuclei
is increased directly by?
A. Insulin.
B. IGF
C. STH
D. Thyroid
hormones.
E. Cortisol.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 136
Young cattle
under two years of age would show which carcass feature?
A. Neural
processes hard and flinty when split.
B. Thoracic
vertebrae fully ossified.
C. Ribs narrow,
round and red.
D. Ribs appearing
white in a medial view.
E. Lumbar
vertebrae without any red line under the cartilage.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 137
The cervical
vertebrae are located in which primal cut of beef in Canada?
A. Brisket.
B. Plate.
C. Rib.
D. Sticking.
E. Chuck.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 138
What is the
typical result of a high level of carotene in a beef animal's diet?
A. Yellow fat.
B. Dark-cutting
beef.
C. Increased area
of Longissimus dorsi.
D. Excessive
subcutaneous fat.
E. Advanced
ossification.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 139
Many factors are
involved in beef grading. What is the
first to take into
account?
A. Longissimus thoracis area.
B. Colour of the meat.
C. Animal age
revealed by ossification.
D. Subcutaneous
fat depth.
E. Fat colour.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 140
Chickens under 8
weeks of age would NOT show?
A. Oil sac small
and soft.
B. Pliable pelvic
bones.
C. Pale
subcutaneous fat.
D. Long spurs.
E. Abundant
cartilage on the sternum.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 141
Which is the
following statements relating to the exsanguination
of cattle is
NOT correct?
A. When an animal
is exsanguinated, the outflow of blood is so massive
it is
unlikely meat deep
in the carcass could become contaminated by bacteria on
the sticking knife.
B. Blood obtained
by exsanguination cannot be used for human foods such
as blood
sausage or black
pudding until the carcass viscera have been inspected.
C. If exsanguination is not undertaken effectively and repeated
attempts are made
to puncture the
major blood vessels, the formation of blood clots may reduce the
rate of exsanguination.
D. It is
important not to damage the trachea when an animal is exsanguinated
otherwise blood may
be drawn into the pleural spaces around the lung. In this
location it may
form a clot that can only be removed by trimming. This damages
the commercial
carcass.
E. In the meat
trade, exsanguination is called sticking.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 142
Approximate data
were given for the composition of a 550 kg steer. One of
the following is extremely unlikely (i.e.,
wrong). Which one?
A. Diaphragm and
visceral fat of 12.4% live weight.
B. Gut fill of
about 10% live weight.
C. A hide of 7.3%
live weight.
D. Head, tail and
feet totalling 6% of live weight.
E. A carcass of
60% live weight.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 143
One of the
following statements relating to evisceration of cattle in an
abattoir is correct.
Which one?
A. The hide is
removed as rapidly as possible. Cuts
through the hide are not a
serious problem
because not much leather is produced in Canada any more.
B. The intestines
are removed before the penis or udder tissue which is left
hanging to one side
for removal at a later time.
C. The first step
after sticking is the removal of the head and lower jaw, with
the hide from that
region left hanging on the remainder of the hide still
covering the
carcass.
D. The anus is
not closed off because the animal is now suspended by one hindlimb
and there is no
risk of faecal material escaping onto the meat of the
carcass.
E. A saw cut is
made through the hide and the sternum to facilitate removal of
the lungs.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 144
What are beef
sweetbreads?
A. Adrenal gland.
B. Pancreas.
C. Thyroid gland.
D. Large lymph
nodes.
E. Thymus gland.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 145
Which of the
following statements relating to antemortem
inspection of
cattle in an abattoir is NOT correct?
A. A zoonosis is a disease of animals which may be transmitted
to humans,
and the plural is zoonoses.
B. Animals unable
to walk normally are separated from the others and slaughtered
separately.
C. Animals with
obvious signs of sickness are separated from all healthy animals
and slaughtered
separately.
D. The meat
inspector is not responsible for ensuring cattle are slaughtered
humanely because
this is the responsibility of the local humane society.
E. Antemortem inspection of abattoir animals is important for
the detection of
serious animal
diseases in the general population.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 146
Which is the main
lymph node of the pig's head inspected post-mortem?
A. Subclavian.
B.
Retropharyngeal.
C. Suborbital.
D. Submaxillary.
E. Salivary.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 147
Many parts of the
pig's gut are used for natural casings in sausage production.
Which casing is
made from the pig's caecum?
A. Runner
B. Bung
C. Weasand
D. Cap
E. Round
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 148
Pigs must be
stunned before they are slaughtered in an abattoir. Which of
the following is NOT correct?
A. The typical
order of steps in pig slaughter is as follows:- (1)
stunning;
(2) hoist the pig
up by one hindlimb using a shackling chain; and (2)
exsanguinate.
B. Pigs may be
stunned by concussion using a captive bolt pistol. The stunner is
normally used in
the midline of the skull posterior to the eyes over the frontal
bones.
C. Pigs may be
stunned electrically using a direct current across the brain or
from the brain
along the spinal cord.
D. In carbon
dioxide stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the gas level at 65%
and in electrical
stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the electrodes clean.
E. Pigs may be
stunned using 65% carbon dioxide gas.
Carbon dioxide gas is
heavier than air
and the pigs are exposed to the gas by taking them into
a tunnel or
pit. The pigs would recover
consciousness if not exsanguinated
after leaving the
stunner.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 149
Blood from
abattoir animals such as the pig can be used for human consumption.
But there are
many complexities involved. Which
statement is NOT correct?
A. Plasma is a
yellow fluid and may be dried to a powder for use in human food.
B. Blood proteins
have a high nutritional value and are used after isolation in
a variety of
different food product.
C. Pig blood
contains easily assimilated iron and may be used for a variety of
human and pet
foods.
D. Red blood
cells shrink if water is added to blood and this is how they are
removed in the
production of blood plasma products.
E. Blood proteins
have a high water-binding capacity which is useful in the
formulation of
convenience foods.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 150
Which
of the following does NOT contribute to the hot carcass weight of a pork
carcass?
A. Kidneys.
B. Head.
C. Leaf-lard.
D. Heart.
E. Feet.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 151
There are many
reasons why dogs are not allowed in abattoirs but the most
important reason for public health is?
A. To break the
life cycle of Fasciola hepatica.
B. To break the
life cycle of Trichinella spiralis.
C. To break the
life cycle of Taenia saginata.
D. To break the
life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus.
E. To break the
life cycle of Taenia solium.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 152
Which of the
following statements relating to lamb slaughter is NOT correct?
A. The diaphragm
is cut to remove the plucks.
B. The skull is
removed anterior to the atlas.
C. A saw cut is
made through the sternum to free the oesophagus.
D. The dressed
carcass is suspended by a gambrel.
E. The process of
freeing the oesophagus is called bunging.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 153
Which
of the following statements relating to the ovine break joint is NOT
correct?
A. Both epiphyseal and diaphyseal
surfaces are exposed in a break joint.
B. The cannon
bones are routinely removed from lamb carcasses at slaughter.
C. Mature sheep
do not exhibit a break joint.
D. Mature sheep
show exposed condyles when their cannon bones are
removed.
E. A spool joint
is where articular condyles
are exposed.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 154
Which of the
following statements relating to melanin is NOT correct?
A. Melanin is
formed from the oxidation of tyrosine by tyrosinase.
B. Melanin is a
pigment formed in organelles called pigmentosomes.
C. Melanin is
passed from melanocytes to skin cells by cytocrine secretion.
D. Absence of tyrosinase results in an albino animal.
E. Pigment cells
are called melanocytes and are located in the deepest
layers of
the epidermis or in
the underlying dermis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 155
Which of the
following statements relating to the structure of the integument
is CORRECT?
A. The papillary
layer does not contain sebaceous glands.
B. The papillary
layer is immediately below the epidermis.
C. Hair follicles
do not pass through the papillary layer.
D. The papillary
layer is located in the hypodermis.
E. The papillary
layer does not contain sweat glands.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 156
The reproductive
system of male poultry is quite different to that found in
the farm mammals. Which of the following statements relating to
male poultry
is CORRECT?
A. A rooster has
two testes located next to the cloaca and connected
to it by
the vas deferens.
B. The rooster
has a long and highly coiled vas deferens on each side of the body
opening directly
into the cloaca.
C. A rooster
normally has only one testis derived from the left side. But it is
located in the
midline of the bird under the vertebral column near the
kidneys.
D. The rooster
differs from male farm mammals in not having an epididymis
located
on the testis.
E. A rooster has
two testes located near the kidneys. The
vas deferens from the
left side joins the
vas deferens from the right side and they open into the
cloaca
on a single papilla.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 157
The respiratory
system of poultry is very different from that found in farm
mammals.
Which does NOT occur in poultry?
A. Diaphragm
B. Bronchus
C. Syrinx
D. Trachea
E. Air sac
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 158
Which of the
following statements relating to the excretory system of poultry
is NOT correct?
A. The kidneys
are elongated organs tightly located under the vertebral column.
B. Chickens
produce a white sludge of uric acid rather than fluid urine like
farm mammals.
C. There are two ureters in poultry.
D. The kidneys
are dark brown in colour and quite soft.
E. Excretory products
produced by the kidneys open via the urethra into the
cloaca.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 159
Which of the
following internal organs is excluded from poultry giblets?
A. Liver.
B. Gizzard wall.
C. Neck.
D. Heart.
E. Kidneys.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 160
The air sacs in
poultry form a complex pattern. Most but not all are paired
structures (on both left and right sides of the body).
Where does the
humeral air sac originate?
A. From the axillary.
B. From the
cervical.
C. From the interclavicular.
D. From the
abdominal.
E. From the
anterior thoracic.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 161
What is the name
of the arch of bone beneath the eye orbit in a pig skull?
A. Ocular arch.
B. Oribital bar.
C. Maxillary
arch.
D. Zygomatic arch.
E. Lacrimal arch.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 162
Which of the
following statements relating to major divisions of the nervous
system is NOT correct?
A. Glands and
blood vessels are innervated by the peripheral nervous system.
B. The
parasympathetic nervous system originates from the brain and the sacral
region of the
spinal cord.
C. The autonomic
nervous system includes the sympathetic nervous system.
D. Sympathetic
nervous system ganglia have short preganglionic
nerves.
E.
Parasympathetic nervous system ganglia have long preganglionic
nerves.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 163
One of the bones
of the pig skull has a large coronoid process. Which
bone?
A. Mandible.
B. Paramastoid.
C. Maxilla.
D. Occipital
bone.
E. Premaxilla.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 164
Which part of the
brain functions like an automatic pilot for the control of
routine muscle movements?
A. Cerebellum.
B. Hypothalamus.
C. Optic lobe.
D. Motor cortex.
E. Cerebral
hemisphere.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 165
What is a peripheral
ganglion?
A. Where a nerve
enters the brain.
B. Where a nerve
enters the spinal cord.
C. A swollen part
of a nerve containing neurons.
D. A swollen part
of an axon containing neurons.
E. The junction
between two neurons.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 166
What item on the
following list is a chemical messenger which passes from the
boar to the sow at the time of mating?
A. Androstenone
B. Adrenaline
C. Androecium
D. Andalusite
E. Androgen
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 167
Which
of the following statements relating to the mammary glands is NOT
correct?
A. Each of the
four quarters of the goat's udder has a separate teat.
B. The bovine
udder is supported by both medial and lateral suspensory
ligaments
dominated by elastin and collagen fibres,
respectively.
C. Milk is
produced in alveoli.
D. The cow's
udder has four quarters so there are two teats on each side.
E. Most sows have
seven pairs of mammary glands and a total of 14 teats.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 168
Which of the
following statements relating to the reproductive system of
the bull is NOT correct?
A. The seminal
vesicles receive spermatozoa and are located on the bladder.
B. Cavernosus muscles involved in extension of the penis are
attached half way
along the sigmoid
flexure.
C. The epididymis is located on the surface of the testis and
leads to the
vas deferens.
D. The urethra
receives spermatozoa from the seminal vesicles.
E. The bull's
penis has a large sigmoid flexure to enable extension.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 169
1
What is the
function of the cremaster muscle in pigs?
A. Causes arching
of the sow's back during mating.
B. Raises the
testes in the scrotum.
C. Acts as a
sphincter to reduce the diameter of the vagina after mating.
D. Retracts the
penis in the boar but not in the bull or ram.
E. Raises the
tail when the male is mating.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 170
The pizzle eye is important for determining the sex of a
carcass in the
abattoir. What is it?
A. Part of
oblique abdominal muscles (obliquus abdominis externus).
B. Where the gubernaculum was attached.
C. Where the
retractor penis muscle was cut.
D. Where the cremaster muscle was cut.
E. Where the ischio-cavernosus muscles were cut.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 171
Electrical
activity of the heart may be detected on the surface of the body
as an electrocardiogram. When do action potentials pass down the bundle
of His?
A. Between P and Q waves.
B. Between R and S waves.
C. During the Q
wave.
D. During the T
wave.
E. During the P
wave.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 172
The heart is made
of a special type of muscle. What is the
best description
of its histology?
A. Layers of mononucleate cells.
B. Unbranched fibres composed of mononucleated cells.
C. Unbranched, multinucleated, striated fibres.
D. Branched fibres composed of cells which usually have one
nucleus. Cells at
branch points may
have two nuclei.
E. Striated,
branched, multinucleated fibres.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 173
Which artery in a
pig contains deoxygenated blood?
A. Posterior
aorta.
B. Coronary
artery.
C. Pulmonary
artery.
D. Pneumatic
artery.
E. Ischaemic artery.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 174
Which animal has
kidneys formed from approximately 20 lobules?
A. None of the
common meat animals has a highly lobulated
kidney. This is a
feature only found
in diving mammals such as the whale.
B. Lamb.
C. Goat.
D. Beef.
E. Pork.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 175
Where is the
proximal convoluted tubule located?
A. In the pyramid
of the kidney.
B. In the glomerulus of the nephron.
C. Immediately
before the loop of Henle.
D. Immediately
connected with the collecting tubule.
E. In the Bowman's
capsule.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 176
The trapezius in the sheep is located where?
A. A strap-like
muscle located laterally in the neck and thus severed during
slaughtering.
B. Dorsal to the rhomboideus.
C. Medial to the
scapula.
D. In the deep
groove on the dorsal and lateral part of the scapula.
E. Ventral to the
rhomboideus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 177
At the widest
part of the ribcage in a cow is a muscle involved in forelimb
locomotion. It
is fairly flat where it is attached to the lateral surfaces
of the ribs.
Which muscle?
A. Serratus ventralis.
B. Trapezius.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Infraspinatus.
E. Longissimus dorsi.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 178
Deep under the
scapula, longissimus dorsi
comes very close to another
muscle.
Which one?
A. Trapezius.
B. Serratus ventralis.
C. Infraspinatus.
D. Triceps brachii.
E. Supraspinatus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 179
Which of the
following statements relating the bovine forelimb cannon bone
is NOT correct?
A. The bovine
forelimb cannon bone articulates with the proximal phalanges.
B. The
longitudinal groove along the length of the bovine forelimb cannon bone
shows where carpals
3 and 4 fused together.
C. The bovine
forelimb cannon bone articulates with the distal carpal bones
D. The bovine
cannon bone is removed from the carcass in the abattoir.
E. The bovine
forelimb cannon bone is composed of metacarpals 3 and 4.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 180
Identify the
statement which is NOT correct in relation to the beef forelimb.
A. The bovine
biceps brachii is a major muscle involved in locomotion.
B. The bovine
triceps brachii is located ventrally to the scapula.
C. The triceps brachii is a relatively small muscle in the beef forelimb
and
does not have three
conspicuous heads as it does in the human arm.
D. The bovine
biceps brachii is located underneath other muscles
and does not
bulge outwards as
it does in a well-developed human arm.
E. The bovine
biceps brachii is located on the opposite side of the
humerus to
the triceps brachii.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 181
The muscles of
the beef hindquarter are clearly visible in a whole round
steak.
Which muscle is located between pectineus and semimembranosus?
A. Biceps femoris.
B. Sartorius.
C. Vastus intermedius.
D. Adductor.
E. Semitendinosus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 182
Which is the calf
muscle of a lamb?
A. Gemellus.
B. Psoas major.
C. Gluteus medius.
D. Gracilis.
E. Gastrocnemius.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 183
Which of the
following statements relating to the pelvic region of a beef
animal is NOT correct?
A. Sacral
vertebrae in the pelvic region are fused together.
B. The ischium is the most posterior bone of the pelvis.
C. The left pubis
is fused to the right pubis in the midline of the animal.
This is where left and right sides of the
carcass are split in the abattoir.
D. The sacrum is
fused to the ischium on each side to produce a
complete ring
of bone in the live
animal.
E. The ilium is the most anterior bone of the pelvis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 184
In the muscles of
a whole beef round, which is a thin strap-like muscle
located anteriorly to the gracilis?
A. Sartorius.
B. Rectus femoris.
C. Semimembranosus.
D. Pectineus.
E. Semitendinosus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 185
Which of the
following would you NOT expect to find on a bovine pelvis?
A. Acetabulum.
B. Symphysis pubis.
C. Glenoid cavity.
D. Obturator foramen.
E. Greater
sciatic notch.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 186
Which
is a major weight-bearing bone in the chicken leg distal and in contact
with the patella?
A. Tarsus.
B. Fibula.
C. Tarsometatarsus.
D. Tibiotarsus.
E. Femur.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 187
Which of the
following chicken bones does NOT reach the glenoid
cavity?
A. Humerus.
B. Carina.
C. Scapula.
D. Coracoid.
E. Clavicle.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 188
Which
is the major muscle to create the downward powerstroke
of the wing in
a chicken.
A. Coracobrachialis.
B. Latissimus dorsi.
C. Pectoralis.
D. Supracoracoideus.
E. Supraspinatus.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 189
What feature is
found in the chicken pelvis but NOT in the beef pelvis?
A. Fusion between
the ilium and certain sacral vertebrae.
B. Fusion between
the pubis and ischium.
C. Fusion between
the ilium and pubis.
D. An acetabulum.
E. Lack of a symphysis pubis.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 190
The chicken has a
pygostyle.
Where is it?
A. The short
projection on each rib.
B. Under the tail
feathers.
C. Contributing
to the glenoid cavity.
D. Inside the proventriculus.
E. In the cloaca.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 191
What is the
innermost layer of the egg shell called?
A. Inner thin.
B. Palisade
layer.
C. Cuticle.
D. Mammillary layer.
E. Spongy
calcareous layer.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 192
Where would you
look to find the blastoderm of an egg?
A. In the
germinal disc.
B. In the chalaziferous layer.
C. On the
chalazae.
D. In the air cell.
E. In the centre
of the yolk.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 193
How much protein
in an egg shell by weight?
A. 2%
B. 8%
C. 1%
D. 4%
E. 0%
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 194
One of the
following statements relating to egg albumen is NOT correct.
Which one?
A. Albumen is
created in the glandular region of the oviduct.
B. Albumen is
created in the magnum of the oviduct.
C. The albumen
forms about 60% of the weight of an egg.
D. Albumen
formation takes about 3 hours for each egg.
E. The albumen of
an egg is contained within the vitelline membrane.
---------------------------------------------------
QUESTION 195
How much of the
weight of an egg is yolk?
A. 40 to 42%
B. 35 to 38%
C. 15 to 18%
D. 23 to 26%
E. 30 to 33%
---------------------------------------------------
Exam ID = 27 Apr
2011 16:30:06
test
*************************ANSWERS**************************
1 B
2 E
3 E
4 A
5 D
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 E
10 E
11 D
12 D
13 D
14 C
15 A
16 E
17 A
18 A
19 B
20 C
21 D
22 E
23 A
24 A
25 A
26 A
27 A
28 B
29 E
30 D
31 D
32 A
33 A
34 E
35 A
36 D
37 A
38 E
39 C
40 A
41 E
42 B
43 D
44 C
45 E
46 D
47 C
48 A
49 B
50 D
51 B
52 C
53 E
54 A
55 B
56 A
57 D
58 A
59 C
60 E
61 A
62 A
63 D
64 E
65 A
66 C
67 A
68 E
69 C
70 D
71 A
72 A
73 B
74 A
75 A
76 D
77 B
78 C
79 D
80 D
81 A
82 B
83 A
84 E
85 A
86 A
87 E
88 A
89 A
90 E
91 A
92 C
93 D
94 D
95 B
96 A
97 D
98 E
99 D
100 A
101 D
102 B
103 C
104 B
105 D
106 E
107 A
108 D
109 A
110 E
111 C
112 B
113 E
114 D
115 A
116 B
117 D
118 C
119 E
120 B
121 D
122 B
123 E
124 C
125 E
126 C
127 C
128 D
129 D
130 C
131 C
132 E
133 D
134 D
135 D
136 C
137 E
138 A
139 C
140 D
141 A
142 A
143 C
144 E
145 D
146 D
147 D
148 C
149 D
150 D
151 D
152 E
153 B
154 B
155 B
156 B
157 A
158 E
159 E
160 A
161 D
162 A
163 A
164 A
165 C
166 A
167 A
168 B
169 B
170 E
171 A
172 D
173 C
174 D
175 C
176 B
177 C
178 B
179 B
180 C
181 D
182 E
183 D
184 A
185 C
186 D
187 B
188 C
189 E
190 B
191 D
192 A
193 D
194 E
195 E
Exam ID = 27 Apr
2011 16:30:06
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