Self-test for all lectures and labs with 5 questions from each.  Answers at bottom.



In which phylum would you place a shrimp?

A. Annelida.

B. Arthropoda.

C. Platyhelminthes.

D. Echinodermata.

E. Cnidaria.



Where are the hooks of a beef animal relative to the pins?

A. Distal.

B. Proximal

C. Posterior.

D. Ventral.

E. Anterior.



Where is the dock of a lamb relative to its loin?

A. Distal.

B. Anterior.

C. Ventral.

D. Dorsal.

E. Posterior.



Where is the belly of a pig relative to its loin?

A. Ventral.

B. Anterior.

C. Dorsal.

D. Posterior.

E. Distal.



In which phylum would you place a sea cucumber?

A. Chordata.

B. Mollusca.

C. Annelida.

D. Echinodermata.

E. Cnidaria.



Which would you NOT expect to find on Bos indicus?

A. Uniform colouration either white, grey or black.

B. A prominent dewlap.

C. A shoulder hump composed mostly of fat.

D. A long face.

E. Drooping ears.



There are many indicators of the age of a chicken. Which would indicate a

young bird?

A. Soft sternal cartilage.

B. Dark subcutaneous fat under the feather tracts.

C. Coarse skin.

D. Oil sac hard and large.

E. Wrinkled comb with blunt points.



Which of the following is the African buffalo?

A. Poephagus.

B. Bison.

C. Bubalus.

D. Syncerus.

E. Bibos.



Where would you most likely find a wild moufflon?

A. Hiamalayas.

B. Patagonia.

C. Canada.

D. Southern Russia.

E. Mediterranean.



Meleagris gallopavo is a?

A. Guinea fowl.

B. Muscovy duck.

C. Rock cornish.

D. Aylesbury duck.

E. Turkey.



One of the following relating to prenatal development of lambs is NOT

correct.  Which one?

A. Competition between twin and triplets foetus may retard growth.

B. C-R length is a good indicator of age from 50 to 100 days gestation.

C. In competitive situations, prenatal females show more retardation of growth

   than males.

D. Undernutrition of the ewe during the first six weeks of gestation causes a

   severe decrease in birth weight.

E. Birth weight has a strong effect on the early postnatal growth of lambs.



What animal takes 150 days to develop before birth?

A. Bison

B. Beef

C. Horse

D. Lamb

E. Pig



In the prenatal development of a lamb, what is primarily responsible for

forming a vascular connection to the ewe?

A. Amnion.

B. Blastocoel.

C. Extraembryonic coelom.

D. Allantois.

E. Yolk sac.



What forms a roof over the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo?

A. Chorionic folds.

B. Blastocoel.

C. Amniotic folds.

D. Allantoic folds.

E. Trophoblast.



What is the innermost layer of cells in the trophoblast?

A. Endoderm.

B. Ectoderm.

C. Mesoderm.

D. Blastocoeloms.

E. Placenta.



What marks the anterior limit of the primitive streak?

A. Heart.

B. Neuropore.

C. Prosencephalon.

D. Paraxial mesoderm.

E. Hensen's node.



There are many aspects to competence in a chick embryo.  Which is NOT true?

A. Competent tissues do NOT need induction.

B. Competence may be regionally specific.

C. Competent tissues respond to inducers.

D. Tissues lacking appropriate competence do NOT respond to inducers.

E. Competence may be stage-specific.



In the blastodisc of a chick, what gives rise to most of the endoderm plus

some of the notochord?

A. Hypoblast.

B. Ectoblast.

C. Epiblast.

D. Endoblast.

E. Mesoblast.



Located immediately DORSAL to the notochord is the?

A. Paraxial mesoderm.

B. Neural tube.

C. Endoderm.

D. Heart.

E. Vitelline vein.



Which corresponds to the developing chick's forebrain?

A. Metencephalon.

B. Mesencephalon.

C. Prosencephalon.

D. Rhombencephalon.

E. Myelencephalon.



What is the action of the Hox genes in a chick embryo?

A. Formation of the eye.

B. Causes the formation of the three main parts of the brain.

C. Determines the position of the limb buds.

D. Determination of the orientation of the antero-posterior axis.

E. Causes the mesoderm to develop a hollow cavity filled with fluid.



What forms the epidermis in a bovine embryo?

A. Dermatome.

B. Myotome.

C. Scleretome.

D. Endoderm.

E. Ectoderm.



Where in a pig embryo would you expect to find somites?

A. Along left and right sides of the neural tube.

B. In the limb buds.

C. Forming segmental blocks through the lateral plate mesoderm.

D. Arranged in pairs dorsal and ventral to the neural tube.

E. Embedded in pairs within the endoderm.



The sclerotome of the pig embryo forms?

A. Vertebrae.

B. Dermis.

C. Muscle.

D. Spinal nerves.

E. Nerve cord.



Which tissue is formed from chondrogenic cells?

A. Cartilage.

B. Muscle.

C. Bone.

D. Fat.

E. Brain and nerves.



Which has both a high ATIR and a high FTIR?

A. Double-muscled cattle.

B. Beef animals with muscles enlarged by exercise.

C. Fast-growing pigs.

D. Dairy cattle.

E. Pigs with a low birth weight.



What initiates muscle contraction when released into the synaptic cleft?

A. Acetylcholine.

B. Butylcholine.

C. Dendritic vesicles.

D. Butylcholinesterase.

E. Acetylcholinesterase.



Peripheral nerves have a complex structure. Which occurs on the surface of a

peripheral nerve?

A. Myelin.

B. Epineurium.

C. Axonal plasma membranes.

D. Endoneurium.

E. Perineurium.



Which of the following best describes a motor unit?

A. A group of motor neurons all connected with the same muscle.

B. A group of muscle fibres located together in the same bundle of muscle fibres.

C. A group of axons innervating adjacent muscle fibres.

D. A group of motor neurons all innervating the same group of muscle fibres.

E. A group of muscle fibres all innervated by one motor neuron.



The node of Ranvier is?

A. Part of the axon hillock.

B. Where dendrites are exposed between Schwann cells.

C. Where the terminal axon contacts a muscle fibre.

D. Where the axon is exposed between Schwann cells.

E. Where dendrites join to the perikaryon of a motor neuron.



Which is a gene involved in muscle development?

A. Fibronectin.



D. Myogenin.

E. Calmodulin.



In the prenatal development of muscle, which is marked by the transcription

of genes coding for typical muscle proteins?

A. Differentiation.

B. Commitment.

C. Mitosis.

D. Maturation.

E. Innervation.



Muscle development on a foetal lamb involves many steps which ultimately may

affect meat yield.  Which is the quantal division?

A. The quantal division occurs at the end of the mitotic cycle in a premyoblast

   when it becomes a myoblast.

B. The quantal division is the way in which all the myofibres in a muscle are

   divided into motor units.

C. The quantal division describes the number of secondary fibres formed on each


D. The quantal division is the number of times a myoblast divides.

E. The quantal division is the way in which a myofibre is subdivided so that all

   its nuclei share in protein synthesis.



Which of the following statements relating to myoblast fusion is NOT correct?

A. Myoblast fusion is triggered by calcium ions.

B. Myoblast fusion is inhibited by magnesium ions.

C. Myoblast fusion may depend on the density of the cells - the number of cells

   packed into the developing muscle.

D. Myoblast fusion is preceeded by a period of cell to cell recognition during

   which myoblasts can be dispersed with EDTA.

E. Myoblast fusion is initiated by the nervous system.



Many curious things happen or do not happen during the prenatal development

of muscle.  Which of the following is NOT correct?

A. Once a muscle is attached to the periosteum of a bone, this is a permanent

   connection and cannot move over the bone surface.

B. Myofibres may originate from either myotubes OR secondary fibres.

C. Prenatal muscle development involves the death and degeneration of many


D. Myotubes become innervated and start to contract before secondary fibres

   become innervated.

E. The stretching of a developing muscle by the prenatal skeleton has a strong

   influence on the future arrangement of myofibres.



Amylose stained by iodine is used in which histochemical reaction?


B. Myofibre capillaries.

C. ATPase.

D. Phosphorylase.

E. Lipid staining.



The redness of meat is related to the aerobic activity of living muscle.

Which is NOT correct?

A. Muscles used for respiration and chewing have low levels of aerobic metabolism

   in the living animal.

B. Muscles with strong anaerobic activity in the living animal can manage for a

   while without blood-borne oxygen.

C. Muscles with strong aerobic metabolism in the living animal use blood-borne

   oxidation for complete oxidation of substrates.

D. Muscle capillaries are located on the surfaces of myofibres and red muscles

   have more capillaries than white muscles.

E. Incomplete oxidation of muscle carbohydrates does not require oxygen from




Red and white muscle is a concept widely used by meat traders and consumers.

Which of the following statements is most correct?

A. In a cured ham the white muscles are located centrally around bones such as the


B. All chicken muscles are fast-contracting because they are all white muscles.

C. Muscle used for respiration or posture are typically fast-contracting.

D. All beef muscles are slow-contracting because they are red muscles.

E. In a species which does not have particularly high levels of myoglobin in its

   skeletal myofibres it is often possible to see slow-contracting muscles with

   more pigmentation than fast-contracting muscles.



Which would you NOT expect to find in alpha-R or Type II red myofibres?

A. Strong phosphorylase activity.

B. Numerous mitochondria.

C. Acid-stable ATPase.

D. Alkali-stable ATPase activity.

E. Strong SDH activity.



Which histochemical type of myofibre has the slowest contraction speed?

A. Type I.

B. Alpha-W.

C. White.

D. Alpha-R.

E. Intermediate.



Which statement relating to rapid muscle growth in young meat animals is

NOT correct?

A. Rapid muscle growth in young meat animals receives a major contribution from

   hypertrophy of white myofibres.

B. Rapid muscle growth may not contribute much to meat quality because it

   mostly originates from white myofibres.

C. Recruitment of new white myofibres contributes to rapid muscle growth.

D. All myofibres exhibit hypertrophy in fast-growing young meat animals.

E. Red myofibres are required for postural muscle activity in young animals and

   they make the largest contribution to rapid muscle growth.



Which of the following statements concerning crossed-reinnervation experiments

is NOT correct?

A. If a slow nerve is grafted onto a fast muscle it will change the activity

   pattern towards a continuous but low level of activity.

B. If the nerve to a slow muscle is cut and allowed to regenerate back into the

   slow muscle the loss of fequent stimulation causes the slow muscle to increase

   its contraction speed.  This occurs because fast muscles normally receive less

   frequent stimulation than slow muscle.

C. If a slow nerve is grafted onto a denervated fast muscle it decreases the

   speed of muscle contraction.

D. If a fast nerve is grafted onto a denervated slow muscle it increases the

   speed of muscle contraction.

E. If a slow nerve is grafted onto a fast muscle but axonal regeneration fails

   then all the myofibres in the muscle will atrophy.



Which of the following is NOT correct in relation to splayleg piglets?

A. Splayleg is caused by inadequate hindlimb adductor muscles.

B. Normal piglets without symptoms of splayleg have a rapid postnatal recruitment

   of red myofibres.

C. Splayleg piglets can be saved by loosely tying their hindlimbs together

   enabling the piglets to escape suffocation by the sow.

D. Splayleg piglets are unable to make rapid locomotory movements with their

   hindlimbs because of a deficiency of white (Type II) myofibres.

E. Splayleg primarily affects the hindlimbs of piglets immediately after




Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. The cells insulating axons with myelin are called Schwann cells.

B. Schwann discovered secondary fibres in the prenatal development of pig muscle.

C. Schwann showed that multinucleate myofibres were derived by multiplication

   of nuclei without division of the cytoplasm.

D. Schwann discovered myotubes in the prenatal development of pig muscle.

E. Schwann proved all animal bodies are an assembly of single cells - most of

   which are mononucleate.



Meat from older animals is different to that from young animals.  Which

statement IS correct?

A. Pork is unusual relative to beef because there are no changes in myofibre

   histochemistry during growth and pork from young pigs is almost identical to

   pork from older pigs.

B. Veal has a stronger taste than beef because it contains less Type II

   myofibres than beef.

C. Mutton has a weaker taste than lamb because of the recruitment of fast


D. Young animals have less myoglobin than old animals.  This makes the meat more

   stronger in taste when obtained from young animals.

E. Postural demands increase as animals become heavier and fatter. There is a

   recruitment of red myofibres in many muscles.



Which opens onto the myofibre surface?

A. Longitudinal tubules.

B. Mitochondria.

C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

D. Transverse tubules.

E. Sarcoplasm.



What is the name of the connective tissue around individual myofibres?

A. Aponeurosis

B. Epimysium

C. Endomysium

D. Tendon

E. Perimysium



What is the best description of the cause of rigor mortis?

A. When ATP is depleted and myosin molecule heads lock onto actin.

B. When ATP is resynthesized from ADP and causes the meat to soften.

C. When ATP is used in the polymerization of G-actin.

D. The increase in muscle extensibility which occurs after slaughter.

E. Loss of muscle extensibility caused by coagulation of myosin.



Where along the sarcomere do BOTH thick and thin myofilaments appear in

RELAXED muscle?

A. In the I band.

B. At the edges of the A band.

C. In the Z-line.

D. In the H-zone.

E. At the midlength of the A band.



With a polarizing microscope, which appears most bright?

A. H zone

B. M line

C. I band

D. A band

E. Z line



Calcium is bound within the sarcoplasmic reticulum by?

A. CapZ.

B. Calsequestrin.

C. Troponin.

D. Gelsolin.

E. Villin.



Which protein responds DIRECTLY to the presence of calcium ions when muscle

contraction is initiated?

A. Actin.

B. Myosin.

C. Troponin.

D. Nebulin.

E. Tropomyosin.



Which is the best description for the location of transverse tubules?

A. Within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B. Within myofibrils - opening onto the myofibril surface.

C. Running longitudinally along myofibrils.

D. Between myofilaments - opening onto the myofibril surface.

E. In the myofibre sarcoplasm - opening onto the myofibre surface.



What part of the myosin molecule protrudes from the thick myofilament?

A. HMM-1

B. Tropomyosin


D. Troponin

E. HMM-2



Where is the sarcoplasmic reticulum located in pork?

A. Around each myofilament.

B. Around each myofibril.

C. Around thick myofilaments but not thin myofilaments.

D. Around each myofibre.

E. Around each fasciculus.



Where along the sarcomere are most of the enzymes used in glycogenolysis?

A. Level with the I band.

B. Level with the A band.

C. Uniformly along the sarcomere.

D. Level with the H-zone.

E. At the midlength of the A band.



Glycogenin is?

A. An enzyme responsible for glycogenolysis.

B. Glucose units released by debranching enzyme

C. Glucose units released by phosphorylase

D. A protein acting as the starting point for a new glycogen granule.

E. A polysaccharide made of glucose units.



What isoenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase dominates the major muscles of a pork


A. LDH-5

B. LDH-4

C. LDH-2

D. LDH-1

E. LDH-3



Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. Oxidative phsophorylation occurs in the mitochondrial membrane.

B. Citrate is formed in aerobic mitochondria.

C. Pyruvate cannot be used in anaerobic meat.

D. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA in mitochondria.

E. Lactate may be produced in anaerobic living muscle.



Debranching enzyme acts where in the structure of glycogen?

A. 2-3

B. 1-4

C. 5-6

D. 4-5

E. 1-6



One of the following statements relating to electrical stimulation of beef

is NOT correct. Which?

A. Red muscles respond more strongly than white muscles.

B. Resistivity of meat is inversely proportional to temperature.

C. The effects of electrical stimulation persist after the stimulatory current

   is stopped.

D. Electrode polarization DECREASES the effectiveness of electrical stimulation.

E. Electrical stimulation causes swelling of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.



Which of the following has NO effect on cold-shortening?

A. Temperature of the meat cooler after development of rigor mortis.

B. Whether a muscle is red or white.

C. Skeletal restraints on a muscle.

D. Fat cover on a carcass.

E. Size and type of carcass affecting its surface to volume ratio.



What is the primary purpose of electrical stimulation?

A. To increase fluid losses before the meat is cooked so the consumer experiences

   lower cooking losses.

B. To shorten sarcomeres and give the meat a compact, attractive appearance.

C. To render an animal unconscious before it is exsanguinated.

D. To reduce the risk of cold shortening when carcasses are refrigerated.

E. To darken the muscle colour to get a higher grade.



What is the absolute refractory period of an axon in a muscle from a

recently slaughtered beef animal?

A. Only responds to a high frequency stimulation.

B. Responds to all stimuli.

C. Only responds to a very strong stimulus.

D. Only responds to a low frequency stimulation.

E. Completely inexcitable to a second stimulus.



How would you describe a beef animal giving rise to a muscle strip showing

shortening at room temperature in a rigorometer?

A. Animal was exhausted.

B. Animal was starved.

C. Animal was calm at slaughter and well-rested.

D. Animal struggled at slaughter.

E. Animal very likely to produce tender meat.



If beef becomes dark-cutting - what can you deduce about the animal which

produced it?

A. It was not properly stunned before exsanguination.

B. It had excessive reflex activity during slaughter.

C. It entered the abattoir without much glycogen in its muscles.

D. It was well fed and resistant to stress.

E. It struggled during slaughter.



Water distribution in meat is a complex subject.  Which is NOT correct?

A. DFD meat has a lower water content than PSE meat.

B. Spaces between myofilaments are decreased in PSE meat.

C. Spaces between myofibrils are increased in PSE meat.

D. Myofibrils are turgid in DFD meat.

E. Spaces between myofibres are increased in PSE meat.



If a pig exhibits dyspnea - what does it mean?

A. Pale skin with blue colouration.

B. Blushing.

C. Lethargy.

D. Trembling of the limbs.

E. Rapid shallow breathing breathing.



Which of the following is NOT a significant cause of PSE meat production from

normal pigs in Ontario?

A. Cold water shower before slaughter.

B. Mixing pigs so they fight before slaughter.

C. Cold winter weather.

D. Use of an electric prod to move pigs in the abattoir before slaughter.

E. Concussion with a captive bolt causing major post mortem reflex activity.



If beef has a pH of 6.5 at 24 hours after slaughter - what can you predict

about its quality?

A. It will appear bright red.

B. It will be surrounded by the fluid it has released.

C. It will have a high weight loss when cooked.

D. It will appear very dark.

E. It will have a soft texture.



What would you expect to find on colourimetry of DFD pork?

A. Very low %Y.

B. Very low chromaticity coordinate y.

C. A shift in the isobestic point.

D. Very low chromaticity coordinate x.

E. Very high chromaticity coordinate y.



Which colour light is most strongly absorbed by myoglobin?

A. Green

B. Red AND orange

C. Red

D. Yellow

E. Orange



Which dietary vitamin retards the oxidation of myoglobin in meat?

A. Vitamin D.

B. Vitamin E.

C. Vitamin A.

D. Vitamin C.

E. Vitamin B.



What colour is the oxidized form of myoglobin?

A. Brown

B. Heat-stable pink

C. Purple

D. Green

E. Bright red



Meat which fails to develop a brown colour when cooked causes concern among

consumers.  Which is least likely to be involved in the formation of a

heat-stable pink pigment in cooked meat?

A. Breed of the animal.

B. Nitrite in ground water obtained from a well.

C. Carbon monoxide inhaled by animals from truck exhaust fumes.

D. Nitric oxide in oven gases.

E. High levels of nitrites in added spices.



What is pyridinoline?

A. A substance produced in fibroblast vesicles and exuded as procollagen.

B. A linkage between tropocollagen and elastin.

C. A rare amino acid found in elastin.

D. A non-reducible cross-link formed by glycosylation.

E. Found in pancreatic enzymes for the digestion of elastin.



Which is used to determine the collagen content of meat?

A. Alanine.

B. Hydroxyproline.

C. Desmosine.

D. Glycine.

E. Glutamic acid.



What must an animal have in its diet in order to form desmosine?

A. High proline levels.

B. High levels of both selenium and vitamin E.

C. Copper.

D. Mercury.

E. High protein levels.



There are connective tissues around bundles of myofibres in meat.  What

are they called?

A. Epimysium.

B. Tropocollagen.

C. Endomysium.

D. Perimysium.

E. Type III collagen.



Which is NOT correct in relation to the connective tissues of meat?

A. Collagen fibres are birefringent.

B. Collagen fibres are composed of collagen fibrils.

C. Collagen fibres stretch by about 5% under tension.

D. Collagen fibres are highly branched.

E. Collagen fibres are extracellular.



At which wavelength would you expect the lowest reflectance from cooked beef?

A. 420 nm

B. 480 nm

C. 500 nm

D. 630 nm

E. 600 nm



Educating consumers is important for maintaining meat sales.  Which of the

following statements is NOT true?

A. Hamburger should be completely cooked all through.  This is to ensure it is

   safe to eat - not to make it tender.

B. Well done beef filet is more tender than beef filet cooked rare.

C. Expensive beef steak may become tough if it is stewed.

D. Rapid grilling of beef with a high connective tissue content will result in

   very tough meat.

E. Expensive beef steak generally becomes tougher the longer it is cooked.



Which of the following poses the greatest health risk?

A. A beef hamburger with a pink interior. No spices were added.

B. A prime rib roast of beef kept in a butcher's cooler for 5 weeks after

   slaughter.  One surface was black and had a dusting of white mould.  It

   was cooked INTACT at high heat.  The outside was well done but the inside

   is still red when eaten.

C. Chicken breast cooked in a gas oven.  It is white inside but pink outside.

D. A beef filet cooked with bacon wrapped around it.  It is a little pink on the

   inside but very pink on the outside - but only where the bacon touched the

   meat.  Where there was no bacon covering the meat - the outside is dark brown.

E. A pork chop which had a sour smell when raw (it was left wrapped in the trunk

   of a car on a warm day).  But it was overcooked.  Burnt on the outside and

   dry and grey inside.



Which of the following does NOT contribute to the brown colour of well cooked


A. Maillard reaction products

B. Haematin di-imadazole complexes

C. Denatured globin nicotinamide hemichrome

D. Metmyochromogen

E. Metmyoglobin



Which best describes the Warner-Bratzler method for measuring meat toughness?

A. A core of meat placed in the triangular opening of blade and pulled through

   a tight slot.

B. Measuring the forces needed to push bulk meat through a meat grinder.

C. A core of meat sheared between two blunt blades.

D. A battery of needles pushed into the surface of a large sample of meat.

E. A core of meat pulled apart by two jaws.



Muscular steatosis should never be seen in the meat counter.  What is it?

A. Replacement of myofibres by adipose cells.

B. Meat without much taste because it is very lean.

C. Expansion of intermuscular fat.

D. An enlargement of subcutaneous fat deposits over the animal's hindquarters.

E. Omental fat not removed in the abattoir.



Which of the following statements relating to adipose tissue in meat animals

is NOT correct?

A. The water content of fat is much lower than that of lean muscle.

B. Adipose cells are surrounded by a meshwork of Type III collagen fibres.

C. Mature adipose cells have very little cytoplasm.

D. Mature adipose cells have only one nucleus and this never divides.

E. Adipose tissue has a poor circulation because it is primarily a storage tissue.



Accumulation of fat in poultry is important.  Which statement is NOT correct?

A. Growth of the abdominal fat pad starts with hypertrophy of adipose cells and

   concludes with hyperplasia of adipose cells.

B. Broilers typically have fewer and smaller adipose cells than layers.

C. Adipose cells of poultry have very little capability for lipogenesis.

D. Adipose cells in poultry may hypertrophy by capturing lipids released by

   digestion in the gut.

E. Adipose cells in poultry may hypertrophy by capturing lipids synthesized in

   the liver.



Adipose cells may develop from a variety of cources.  Which is the MATURE cell?

A. Unilocular.

B. Fibroblast-like.

C. Gland-like.

D. Mesenchymal.

E. Multilocular.



Where in a beef carcass are we trying to deposit fat?

A. Intermuscular.

B. Omental fat.

C. Kidney fat.

D. Mesenteric fat.

E. Intramuscular.



What occurs when a sow produces milk after farrowing?

A. Decreased lipogenesis and increased lipolysis.

B. Increased lipogenesis and decreased lipolysis.

C. Increases of both lipogenesis and lipolysis.

D. Decreases of both lipogenesis and lipolysis.

E. Increased deposition of carcass fat.



Which of the following statements relating to the quality of fat in pork is

NOT correct?

A. The aroma of fish oil in a pig's diet may be carried onward into the pig's fat.

B. Greasy pork fat has a low melting point.

C. Linoleic acid is used for feeding pigs because it makes the fat firm and white.

D. Omega-3 fatty acids are thought beneficial by many consumers but their

   presence in pork fat may cause unpleasant odours after storage.

E. Auto-oxidation and the formation of unpleasant odours increases when large

   numbers of the bonds in fatty acids are unsaturated.



Linoleic acid has how many double bonds?

A. 1

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

E. 5



Which of the following statements relating to fatty acids in meat is NOT true?

A. Fatty acid melting points are proportional to chain length.

B. The presence of unsaturated bonds lowers the melting point of fatty acids.

C. The majority of fatty acids in meat have an even number of carbon atoms.

D. The presence of unsaturated bonds straightens the structure of fatty acids.

E. Fat in meat animals is liquid at body temperature.



Which of the following statements relating to lacteals is NOT correct?

A. Lacteals are located in the villi of the small intestine.

B. Lacteals secrete enzymes into the small intestine.

C. Lacteals eventually lead to the venous system.

D. Lacteals collect chylomicra.

E. Lacteals are blind-ending lymphatic capillaries.



Which of the following statements relating to animal growth is NOT correct?

A. Animal growth occurs when catabolism exceeds anabolism.

B. All living animals exhibit both anabolism and catabolism - even when their

   growth is complete.

C. von Bertallanffy's growth equation is based on the balance of catabolism and


D. The half lives of major proteins in meat are mostly several days in duration.

E. When animals are at a constant weight: catabolism = anabolism.



Which of the following methods is used most often industrially to measure the

fatness of meat animals?

A. Computer-assisted tomography

B. Nuclear magnetic resonance

C. Specific gravity

D. Ultrasonics

E. Photogrammetry



Body weight raised to a power is proportional to basal metabolism. What power?

A. 0.5

B. 0.95

C. 0.33

D. 0.66

E. 0.75



Which of the following growth curves is sigmoidal, becomes

asymptotic and is asymmetrical?

A. Autocatalytic

B. Brody's

C. Time-based

D. von Bertalanffy

E. Robertson's



Which of the following is NOT true for the effect of light on the growth of


A. Chickens exhibit maximum growth rates if they fill their crops as soon as

   the light becomes bright at the start of a bright photoperiod.

B. Increased feed intake and increased feed efficiency gives maximum growth and

   is strongly affected by lighting.

C. Illumination has a strong effect on circadian rhythms in poultry.

D. Chickens may exhibit fairly rapid growth if kept at a constant low level of

   illumination but this is not accompanied by increased feed efficiency.

E. Feed conversion efficiency is strongly affected by illumination in poultry.



Where on a pork carcass are muscle groups with the lowest allometric growth


A. Ham

B. Belly

C. Loin

D. Jowl

E. Shoulder



Muscle groups with the lowest allometric growth ratios are found where on

a beef carcass?

A. Crest

B. Hock

C. Dewlap

D. Paunch

E. Loin



Domestication is associated with changes in allometry.  Which is NOT true?

A. Domestication is often associated with a relative decrease in size of the

   adrenal cortex.

B. Domestication of sheep is often associated with increased convexity of the

   nose caused by negative allometry of the lower jaw.

C. Brains of domestic pigs are relatively larger than those of wild pigs.

D. Domestication of ducks has been associated with changes in the pituitary-

   adrenal system.

E. Domestication is usually associated with an increase in activity of the gonads.



Which of the following regions of the beef carcass contains muscle groups

with the highest allometric growth ratios?

A. Shoulder

B. Paunch

C. Loin

D. Elbow

E. Thigh



Poultry exhibit allometric growth.  Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Allometric growth of muscle groups along the vertbral column is inconspicuous.

B. Nutrition has little effect on the relative distribution and allometric growth

   ratios of muscles in poultry.

C. Early deposition of subcutaneous fat is encouraged in chickens and turkeys.

D. Leg muscles of ducks show a strong positive allometric growth.

E. Late deposition of subcutaneous fat is encouraged in ducks and geese.



How was Hammond's model of nutrient energy distribution in growing animals

modified to fit what is observed in modern cattle?

A. Fat no longer has the lowest priority.

B. Bone and muscle now have equal priority.

C. Fat and muscle now have equal priority.

D. Vital organs have been dropped from the model.

E. Energy distribution is now viewed as a combination of nutrient availability

   and tissue capacity.



Where is the time-tally control mechanism for animal growth located?

A. Hypothalamus

B. Sympathetic ganglia

C. Medulla oblongata

D. Cardiac pace-maker

E. Cerebellum



Which of the following statements relating to the control of feed intake is

NOT correct?

A. Hypothalamic feed-back circuits are involved in the control of feed intake.

B. Endorphins and enkaphalins are peptides involved in the control of feed intake.

C. Ruminants use proprionate sensors in or near the rumen to control roughage


D. Diets with low levels of complex carbohydrates and high levels of protein

   tend to increase the growth of the gastrointestinal tract.

E. Ruminants use acetate sensors in or near the rumen to control roughage intake.



Insulin has many functions in the control of animal growth.  Which is NOT true?

A. Insulin decreases amino acid transport across cell membranes.

B. Insulin modulates RNA synthesis in the cell nucleus.

C. Insulin increases glucose transport across cell membranes.

D. Insulin activates ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

E. Insulin modulates DNA synthesis in the cell nucleus.



Which of the following general statements relating to animal growth is NOT


A. Animals seem to 'know' what weight they should be at a certain age.

B. The action of insulin is balanced against the number of insulin receptors and

   their capacity for binding insulin.

C. Animals on a restricted diet often use proteins as a source of energy.

D. Insulin activates the energy capturing system of cells.

E. Stress increases fat deposition.



Which of the following statements is NOT correct in relation to muscles

growing postnatally in meat animals?

A. Animals on a high plane of nutrition typically develop larger diameter

   myofibres than comparable animals on a low plane of nutrition.

B. Myofibres tend to be prismatic in shape - this makes it difficult to measure

   myofibre diameter.

C. Sarcomere length has no effect on myofibre diameter.

D. Entire males typically have larger diameter myofibres than comparable females.

E. Myofibres often decrease in diameter at their ends.



In the radial growth of myofibres, where are new myofilaments added?

A. At the neuromuscular junction.

B. Around the outside of myofibrils.

C. In the central axis of myofibrils.

D. Only at the ends of myofibres.

E. Only under the cell membrane of the myofibre.



What is the involvement of calcium ions in myofibrillar growth?

A. Myofibrils can only develop new myofilaments in the absence of calcium ions.

B. Calcium ions activate protein synthesis in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

C. Calcium ions activate the synthesis of messenger RNA from DNA.

D. Growth of the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes calcium ions to accumulate in

   the central axes of myofibrils where they cause relaxation so that new

   myofilaments can be added.

E. Accumulation of new myofilaments lengthens the diffusion pathway for calcium

   ions. Shearing occurs as the outside of the myofibril contracts before

   the central axis.



Which of the following features is NOT true for satellite cells?

A. They are usually located in a depression on the myofibre surface.

B. Their nucleoli are difficult to see.

C. The cytoplasm of satellite cells is separated from the cytoplasm (= sarcoplasm)

   of myofibres by TWO cell membranes.

D. They have a small amount of acidophilic cytoplasm.

E. They are beneath the endomysium.



Which of the following statements relating to the nuclei along a myofibre

is NOT correct?

A. The incidence of satellite cells is greater in old animals than in young


B. Some nuclei are truly inside the myofibre while others are on the myofibre


C. Nuclei are more frequent at the ends of the myofibre.

D. In a transverse section of a myofibre, fewer nuclei are detected in thin

   sections than in thick sections.

E. Slow-contracting myofibres tend to have proportionally more nuclei than

   fast-contracting myofibres.



Which of the following statements relating to longitudinal growth of myofibres

is NOT correct?

A. Pennate muscles have myofibres attached at an angle - often to an intramuscular


B. The length of myofibres is determined from the length of the fasciculi in which

   they are located.

C. Once formed, myofilaments do not grow in length.

D. When myofibrils grow in length, new sarcomeres are always added to the ENDS

   of the myofibrils.

E. When myofibres grow in length, new sarcomeres are always added at the ENDS

   of the myofibres.



What is the explanation for increases found in the number of myofibres at the

midlength of parallel-fibred muscles during the growth of pigs?

A. Formation of new myofibres from myotubes.

B. Decreases in fascicular length.

C. Formation of new myofibres from myoblasts.

D. Growth of intrafascicularly terminating myofibres at a faster rate than the

   overall length of the muscle.

E. Formation of new myofibres from secondary fibres.



What happens to the length of extramuscular tendon relative to the length of

the muscle belly during longitudinal growth?

A. The extramuscular tendon shows more longitudinal growth than the muscle belly.

B. There is no relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle and the

   length of its extramuscular tendon.

C. Extramuscular tendon length grows at the same rate as the length of the muscle


D. The length of the muscle belly increases at a faster rate than that of the

   extramuscular tendon.

E. There is no relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle and the

   length of its intramuscular tendon.



Which statement is NOT correct in relation to muscle growth in turkeys?

A. Growth of the sartorius reaches a maximum at 15 weeks.

B. Pennate muscles in turkeys grow in both length and width.

C. The supracoracoideus of turkeys is a pennate muscle.

D. An osteofascial compartments limits the size of the supracoracoideus.

E. Females develop longer muscles than males.



Ewes fed a high energy ration grow fast.  Where does the extra muscle appear?

A. In the length of the whole Longissimus dorsi.

B. In the depth of the Longissimus dorsi.

C. At the posterior end of the Longissimus dorsi.

D. In the width of the Longissimus dorsi.

E. At the anterior end of the Longissimus dorsi.



How is reproduction affected by the double-muscled condition in cattle?

A. High lactation.

B. Wide pelvic opening in the cow.

C. Good nursing of the calf.

D. Underdevelopment of the reproductive tract in both sexes.

E. Shorter gestation period.



Which best describes double-muscling in cattle?

A. Carcass muscles only have increased apparent numbers of myofibres.  The real

   number is unchanged.

B. Carcass muscles have increases in both apparent AND real numbers of myofibres.

C. There are no extra myofibres in double-muscled cattle.  This is why the

   condition is called muscular hypertrophy.

D. Double-muscled animals have twice as many muscles as normal cattle.

E. Carcass muscles have extra myofibres but this does not increase the apparent

   number of myofibres because intrafascicularly terminating myofibres are shorter

   than normal.



Which of the following is INCREASED in double-muscled cattle?

A. Collagen content in bone.

B. Growth rate.

C. Collagen content in muscle.

D. Weight of hide.

E. Susceptibility to heat stress.



How many pro-otic segments in the bovine embryo?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 3

D. 1

E. 5



Where would you find a muscle with a normal number of myofibres in

double-muscled cattle?

A. Longissimus dorsi.

B. Cutaneous muscle under the skin.

C. Tongue muscle.

D. Sartorius muscle.

E. Extraocular muscle.



Muscle:bone ratios are fairly important in carcass composition.  Which is

NOT correct?

A. The muscle to bone ratio increases as cattle get fatter.

B. The muscle to bone ratio increases as cattle grow older.

C. Cannon bone weight relative to carcass weight is a reliable indicator of

   muscle:bone ratio in a commercial beef carcass.

D. Animal age has a major effect on muscle:bone ratio.

E. Muscles typically start to accumulate intramuscular fat once the longitudinal

   growth of bones ceases. This tends to increase muscle:bone ratios.



Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?

A. Ischium.

B. Sternum.

C. Frontal bone.

D. Rib.

E. Femur.



What is the name for the type of growth shown by chondrocytes when they form

new matrix which pushes the cells apart?

A. Appositional growth.

B. Ossification.

C. Matrix hypertrophy.

D. Interstitial growth.

E. Sigmoid growth.



What are bone canaliculi?

A. The canals by which arteries pass through compact bone.

B. The cavity in which osteocytes are located.

C. Structures connecting the periostium to the bone matrix.

D. Very small tubes through the bone matrix between lacunae.

E. The large canal containing an artery in the axis of a Haversian system.



What is the name for the shaft of a long bone in a beef animal?

A. Symphysis.

B. Epiphyseal plate.

C. Diaphysis.

D. Epiphysis.

E. Condyle.



IGF has a range of effects important in meat animal production.  Which is

NOT true?

A. IGF is present in hypophysectomized animals injected with STH.

B. IGF stimulates glucose transport.

C. A low concentration of insulin has similar effects to a high concentration

   of IGF.

D. IGF is not blocked by anti-insulin serum.

E. IGF is bound by IGFBP in blood plasma.



STH has a major effect on meat production.  Which is NOT true?

A. Anabolic steroids may increase STH production in ruminants.

B. Diethystilboestrol may increase production of somatotrophin in cattle.

C. STH conserves muscle at the expense of fat.

D. STH is released in surges during the day.

E. Early maturing beef breeds generally have very high levels of STH.



Which is another name for somatomedin C?


B. Somatostatin

C. IGF-2

D. IGF-1




Which of the following hormones was originally called sulphation factor?


B. Cortisol

C. Somatotrophin


E. Insulin



In myofibres of meat animals, messenger RNA production from myofibre nuclei

is increased directly by?

A. Insulin.



D. Thyroid hormones.

E. Cortisol.



Young cattle under two years of age would show which carcass feature?

A. Neural processes hard and flinty when split.

B. Thoracic vertebrae fully ossified.

C. Ribs narrow, round and red.

D. Ribs appearing white in a medial view.

E. Lumbar vertebrae without any red line under the cartilage.



The cervical vertebrae are located in which primal cut of beef in Canada?

A. Brisket.

B. Plate.

C. Rib.

D. Sticking.

E. Chuck.



What is the typical result of a high level of carotene in a beef animal's diet?

A. Yellow fat.

B. Dark-cutting beef.

C. Increased area of Longissimus dorsi.

D. Excessive subcutaneous fat.

E. Advanced ossification.



Many factors are involved in beef grading.  What is the first to take into


A. Longissimus thoracis area.

B. Colour of the meat.

C. Animal age revealed by ossification.

D. Subcutaneous fat depth.

E. Fat colour.



Chickens under 8 weeks of age would NOT show?

A. Oil sac small and soft.

B. Pliable pelvic bones.

C. Pale subcutaneous fat.

D. Long spurs.

E. Abundant cartilage on the sternum.



Which is the following statements relating to the exsanguination of cattle is

NOT correct?

A. When an animal is exsanguinated, the outflow of blood is so massive it is

   unlikely meat deep in the carcass could become contaminated by bacteria on

   the sticking knife.

B. Blood obtained by exsanguination cannot be used for human foods such as blood

   sausage or black pudding until the carcass viscera have been inspected.

C. If exsanguination is not undertaken effectively and repeated attempts are made

   to puncture the major blood vessels, the formation of blood clots may reduce the

   rate of exsanguination.

D. It is important not to damage the trachea when an animal is exsanguinated

   otherwise blood may be drawn into the pleural spaces around the lung. In this

   location it may form a clot that can only be removed by trimming.  This damages

   the commercial carcass.

E. In the meat trade, exsanguination is called sticking.



Approximate data were given for the composition of a 550 kg steer. One of

the following is extremely unlikely (i.e., wrong).  Which one?

A. Diaphragm and visceral fat of 12.4% live weight.

B. Gut fill of about 10% live weight.

C. A hide of 7.3% live weight.

D. Head, tail and feet totalling 6% of live weight.

E. A carcass of 60% live weight.



One of the following statements relating to evisceration of cattle in an

abattoir is correct.  Which one?

A. The hide is removed as rapidly as possible.  Cuts through the hide are not a

   serious problem because not much leather is produced in Canada any more.

B. The intestines are removed before the penis or udder tissue which is left

   hanging to one side for removal at a later time.

C. The first step after sticking is the removal of the head and lower jaw, with

   the hide from that region left hanging on the remainder of the hide still

   covering the carcass.

D. The anus is not closed off because the animal is now suspended by one hindlimb

   and there is no risk of faecal material escaping onto the meat of the carcass.

E. A saw cut is made through the hide and the sternum to facilitate removal of

   the lungs.



What are beef sweetbreads?

A. Adrenal gland.

B. Pancreas.

C. Thyroid gland.

D. Large lymph nodes.

E. Thymus gland.



Which of the following statements relating to antemortem inspection of

cattle in an abattoir is NOT correct?

A. A zoonosis is a disease of animals which may be transmitted to humans,

   and the plural is zoonoses.

B. Animals unable to walk normally are separated from the others and slaughtered


C. Animals with obvious signs of sickness are separated from all healthy animals

   and slaughtered separately.

D. The meat inspector is not responsible for ensuring cattle are slaughtered

   humanely because this is the responsibility of the local humane society.

E. Antemortem inspection of abattoir animals is important for the detection of

   serious animal diseases in the general population.



Which is the main lymph node of the pig's head inspected post-mortem?

A. Subclavian.

B. Retropharyngeal.

C. Suborbital.

D. Submaxillary.

E. Salivary.



Many parts of the pig's gut are used for natural casings in sausage production.

Which casing is made from the pig's caecum?

A. Runner

B. Bung

C. Weasand

D. Cap

E. Round



Pigs must be stunned before they are slaughtered in an abattoir.  Which of

the following is NOT correct?

A. The typical order of steps in pig slaughter is as follows:- (1) stunning;

   (2) hoist the pig up by one hindlimb using a shackling chain; and (2)


B. Pigs may be stunned by concussion using a captive bolt pistol.  The stunner is

   normally used in the midline of the skull posterior to the eyes over the frontal


C. Pigs may be stunned electrically using a direct current across the brain or

   from the brain along the spinal cord.

D. In carbon dioxide stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the gas level at 65%

   and in electrical stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the electrodes clean.

E. Pigs may be stunned using 65% carbon dioxide gas.  Carbon dioxide gas is

   heavier than air and the pigs are exposed to the gas by taking them into

   a tunnel or pit.  The pigs would recover consciousness if not exsanguinated

   after leaving the stunner.



Blood from abattoir animals such as the pig can be used for human consumption.

But there are many complexities involved.  Which statement is NOT correct?

A. Plasma is a yellow fluid and may be dried to a powder for use in human food.

B. Blood proteins have a high nutritional value and are used after isolation in

   a variety of different food product.

C. Pig blood contains easily assimilated iron and may be used for a variety of

   human and pet foods.

D. Red blood cells shrink if water is added to blood and this is how they are

   removed in the production of blood plasma products.

E. Blood proteins have a high water-binding capacity which is useful in the

   formulation of convenience foods.



Which of the following does NOT contribute to the hot carcass weight of a pork


A. Kidneys.

B. Head.

C. Leaf-lard.

D. Heart.

E. Feet.



There are many reasons why dogs are not allowed in abattoirs but the most

important reason for public health is?

A. To break the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica.

B. To break the life cycle of Trichinella spiralis.

C. To break the life cycle of Taenia saginata.

D. To break the life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus.

E. To break the life cycle of Taenia solium.



Which of the following statements relating to lamb slaughter is NOT correct?

A. The diaphragm is cut to remove the plucks.

B. The skull is removed anterior to the atlas.

C. A saw cut is made through the sternum to free the oesophagus.

D. The dressed carcass is suspended by a gambrel.

E. The process of freeing the oesophagus is called bunging.



Which of the following statements relating to the ovine break joint is NOT


A. Both epiphyseal and diaphyseal surfaces are exposed in a break joint.

B. The cannon bones are routinely removed from lamb carcasses at slaughter.

C. Mature sheep do not exhibit a break joint.

D. Mature sheep show exposed condyles when their cannon bones are removed.

E. A spool joint is where articular condyles are exposed.



Which of the following statements relating to melanin is NOT correct?

A. Melanin is formed from the oxidation of tyrosine by tyrosinase.

B. Melanin is a pigment formed in organelles called pigmentosomes.

C. Melanin is passed from melanocytes to skin cells by cytocrine secretion.

D. Absence of tyrosinase results in an albino animal.

E. Pigment cells are called melanocytes and are located in the deepest layers of

   the epidermis or in the underlying dermis.



Which of the following statements relating to the structure of the integument


A. The papillary layer does not contain sebaceous glands.

B. The papillary layer is immediately below the epidermis.

C. Hair follicles do not pass through the papillary layer.

D. The papillary layer is located in the hypodermis.

E. The papillary layer does not contain sweat glands.



The reproductive system of male poultry is quite different to that found in

the farm mammals.  Which of the following statements relating to male poultry


A. A rooster has two testes located next to the cloaca and connected to it by

   the vas deferens.

B. The rooster has a long and highly coiled vas deferens on each side of the body

   opening directly into the cloaca.

C. A rooster normally has only one testis derived from the left side.  But it is

   located in the midline of the bird under the vertebral column near the


D. The rooster differs from male farm mammals in not having an epididymis located

   on the testis.

E. A rooster has two testes located near the kidneys.  The vas deferens from the

   left side joins the vas deferens from the right side and they open into the

   cloaca on a single papilla.



The respiratory system of poultry is very different from that found in farm

mammals.  Which does NOT occur in poultry?

A. Diaphragm

B. Bronchus

C. Syrinx

D. Trachea

E. Air sac



Which of the following statements relating to the excretory system of poultry

is NOT correct?

A. The kidneys are elongated organs tightly located under the vertebral column.

B. Chickens produce a white sludge of uric acid rather than fluid urine like

   farm mammals.

C. There are two ureters in poultry.

D. The kidneys are dark brown in colour and quite soft.

E. Excretory products produced by the kidneys open via the urethra into the




Which of the following internal organs is excluded from poultry giblets?

A. Liver.

B. Gizzard wall.

C. Neck.

D. Heart.

E. Kidneys.



The air sacs in poultry form a complex pattern. Most but not all are paired

structures (on both left and right sides of the body). Where does the

humeral air sac originate?

A. From the axillary.

B. From the cervical.

C. From the interclavicular.

D. From the abdominal.

E. From the anterior thoracic.



What is the name of the arch of bone beneath the eye orbit in a pig skull?

A. Ocular arch.

B. Oribital bar.

C. Maxillary arch.

D. Zygomatic arch.

E. Lacrimal arch.



Which of the following statements relating to major divisions of the nervous

system is NOT correct?

A. Glands and blood vessels are innervated by the peripheral nervous system.

B. The parasympathetic nervous system originates from the brain and the sacral

   region of the spinal cord.

C. The autonomic nervous system includes the sympathetic nervous system.

D. Sympathetic nervous system ganglia have short preganglionic nerves.

E. Parasympathetic nervous system ganglia have long preganglionic nerves.



One of the bones of the pig skull has a large coronoid process. Which bone?

A. Mandible.

B. Paramastoid.

C. Maxilla.

D. Occipital bone.

E. Premaxilla.



Which part of the brain functions like an automatic pilot for the control of

routine muscle movements?

A. Cerebellum.

B. Hypothalamus.

C. Optic lobe.

D. Motor cortex.

E. Cerebral hemisphere.



What is a peripheral ganglion?

A. Where a nerve enters the brain.

B. Where a nerve enters the spinal cord.

C. A swollen part of a nerve containing neurons.

D. A swollen part of an axon containing neurons.

E. The junction between two neurons.



What item on the following list is a chemical messenger which passes from the

boar to the sow at the time of mating?

A. Androstenone

B. Adrenaline

C. Androecium

D. Andalusite

E. Androgen



Which of the following statements relating to the mammary glands is NOT


A. Each of the four quarters of the goat's udder has a separate teat.

B. The bovine udder is supported by both medial and lateral suspensory ligaments

   dominated by elastin and collagen fibres, respectively.

C. Milk is produced in alveoli.

D. The cow's udder has four quarters so there are two teats on each side.

E. Most sows have seven pairs of mammary glands and a total of 14 teats.



Which of the following statements relating to the reproductive system of

the bull is NOT correct?

A. The seminal vesicles receive spermatozoa and are located on the bladder.

B. Cavernosus muscles involved in extension of the penis are attached half way

   along the sigmoid flexure.

C. The epididymis is located on the surface of the testis and leads to the

   vas deferens.

D. The urethra receives spermatozoa from the seminal vesicles.

E. The bull's penis has a large sigmoid flexure to enable extension.




What is the function of the cremaster muscle in pigs?

A. Causes arching of the sow's back during mating.

B. Raises the testes in the scrotum.

C. Acts as a sphincter to reduce the diameter of the vagina after mating.

D. Retracts the penis in the boar but not in the bull or ram.

E. Raises the tail when the male is mating.



The pizzle eye is important for determining the sex of a carcass in the

abattoir. What is it?

A. Part of oblique abdominal muscles (obliquus abdominis externus).

B. Where the gubernaculum was attached.

C. Where the retractor penis muscle was cut.

D. Where the cremaster muscle was cut.

E. Where the ischio-cavernosus muscles were cut.



Electrical activity of the heart may be detected on the surface of the body

as an electrocardiogram.  When do action potentials pass down the bundle

of His?

A. Between P and Q waves.

B. Between R and S waves.

C. During the Q wave.

D. During the T wave.

E. During the P wave.



The heart is made of a special type of muscle.  What is the best description

of its histology?

A. Layers of mononucleate cells.

B. Unbranched fibres composed of mononucleated cells.

C. Unbranched, multinucleated, striated fibres.

D. Branched fibres composed of cells which usually have one nucleus.  Cells at

   branch points may have two nuclei.

E. Striated, branched, multinucleated fibres.



Which artery in a pig contains deoxygenated blood?

A. Posterior aorta.

B. Coronary artery.

C. Pulmonary artery.

D. Pneumatic artery.

E. Ischaemic artery.



Which animal has kidneys formed from approximately 20 lobules?

A. None of the common meat animals has a highly lobulated kidney.  This is a

   feature only found in diving mammals such as the whale.

B. Lamb.

C. Goat.

D. Beef.

E. Pork.



Where is the proximal convoluted tubule located?

A. In the pyramid of the kidney.

B. In the glomerulus of the nephron.

C. Immediately before the loop of Henle.

D. Immediately connected with the collecting tubule.

E. In the Bowman's capsule.



The trapezius in the sheep is located where?

A. A strap-like muscle located laterally in the neck and thus severed during


B. Dorsal to the rhomboideus.

C. Medial to the scapula.

D. In the deep groove on the dorsal and lateral part of the scapula.

E. Ventral to the rhomboideus.



At the widest part of the ribcage in a cow is a muscle involved in forelimb

locomotion.  It is fairly flat where it is attached to the lateral surfaces

of the ribs.  Which muscle?

A. Serratus ventralis.

B. Trapezius.

C. Latissimus dorsi.

D. Infraspinatus.

E. Longissimus dorsi.



Deep under the scapula, longissimus dorsi comes very close to another

muscle.  Which one?

A. Trapezius.

B. Serratus ventralis.

C. Infraspinatus.

D. Triceps brachii.

E. Supraspinatus.



Which of the following statements relating the bovine forelimb cannon bone

is NOT correct?

A. The bovine forelimb cannon bone articulates with the proximal phalanges.

B. The longitudinal groove along the length of the bovine forelimb cannon bone

   shows where carpals 3 and 4 fused together.

C. The bovine forelimb cannon bone articulates with the distal carpal bones

D. The bovine cannon bone is removed from the carcass in the abattoir.

E. The bovine forelimb cannon bone is composed of metacarpals 3 and 4.



Identify the statement which is NOT correct in relation to the beef forelimb.

A. The bovine biceps brachii is a major muscle involved in locomotion.

B. The bovine triceps brachii is located ventrally to the scapula.

C. The triceps brachii is a relatively small muscle in the beef forelimb and

   does not have three conspicuous heads as it does in the human arm.

D. The bovine biceps brachii is located underneath other muscles and does not

   bulge outwards as it does in a well-developed human arm.

E. The bovine biceps brachii is located on the opposite side of the humerus to

   the triceps brachii.



The muscles of the beef hindquarter are clearly visible in a whole round

steak.  Which muscle is located between pectineus and semimembranosus?

A. Biceps femoris.

B. Sartorius.

C. Vastus intermedius.

D. Adductor.

E. Semitendinosus.



Which is the calf muscle of a lamb?

A. Gemellus.

B. Psoas major.

C. Gluteus medius.

D. Gracilis.

E. Gastrocnemius.



Which of the following statements relating to the pelvic region of a beef

animal is NOT correct?

A. Sacral vertebrae in the pelvic region are fused together.

B. The ischium is the most posterior bone of the pelvis.

C. The left pubis is fused to the right pubis in the midline of the animal.

   This is where left and right sides of the carcass are split in the abattoir.

D. The sacrum is fused to the ischium on each side to produce a complete ring

   of bone in the live animal.

E. The ilium is the most anterior bone of the pelvis.



In the muscles of a whole beef round, which is a thin strap-like muscle

located anteriorly to the gracilis?

A. Sartorius.

B. Rectus femoris.

C. Semimembranosus.

D. Pectineus.

E. Semitendinosus.



Which of the following would you NOT expect to find on a bovine pelvis?

A. Acetabulum.

B. Symphysis pubis.

C. Glenoid cavity.

D. Obturator foramen.

E. Greater sciatic notch.



Which is a major weight-bearing bone in the chicken leg distal and in contact

with the patella?

A. Tarsus.

B. Fibula.

C. Tarsometatarsus.

D. Tibiotarsus.

E. Femur.



Which of the following chicken bones does NOT reach the glenoid cavity?

A. Humerus.

B. Carina.

C. Scapula.

D. Coracoid.

E. Clavicle.



Which is the major muscle to create the downward powerstroke of the wing in

a chicken.

A. Coracobrachialis.

B. Latissimus dorsi.

C. Pectoralis.

D. Supracoracoideus.

E. Supraspinatus.



What feature is found in the chicken pelvis but NOT in the beef pelvis?

A. Fusion between the ilium and certain sacral vertebrae.

B. Fusion between the pubis and ischium.

C. Fusion between the ilium and pubis.

D. An acetabulum.

E. Lack of a symphysis pubis.



The chicken has a pygostyle.  Where is it?

A. The short projection on each rib.

B. Under the tail feathers.

C. Contributing to the glenoid cavity.

D. Inside the proventriculus.

E. In the cloaca.



What is the innermost layer of the egg shell called?

A. Inner thin.

B. Palisade layer.

C. Cuticle.

D. Mammillary layer.

E. Spongy calcareous layer.



Where would you look to find the blastoderm of an egg?

A. In the germinal disc.

B. In the chalaziferous layer.

C. On the chalazae.

D. In the air cell.

E. In the centre of the yolk.



How much protein in an egg shell by weight?

A. 2%

B. 8%

C. 1%

D. 4%

E. 0%



One of the following statements relating to egg albumen is NOT correct.

Which one?

A. Albumen is created in the glandular region of the oviduct.

B. Albumen is created in the magnum of the oviduct.

C. The albumen forms about 60% of the weight of an egg.

D. Albumen formation takes about 3 hours for each egg.

E. The albumen of an egg is contained within the vitelline membrane.



How much of the weight of an egg is yolk?

A. 40 to 42%

B. 35 to 38%

C. 15 to 18%

D. 23 to 26%

E. 30 to 33%




Exam ID = 27 Apr 2011 16:30:06



 1 B

 2 E

 3 E

 4 A

 5 D

 6 C

 7 A

 8 D

 9 E

 10 E

 11 D

 12 D

 13 D

 14 C

 15 A

 16 E

 17 A

 18 A

 19 B

 20 C

 21 D

 22 E

 23 A

 24 A

 25 A

 26 A

 27 A

 28 B

 29 E

 30 D

 31 D

 32 A

 33 A

 34 E

 35 A

 36 D

 37 A

 38 E

 39 C

 40 A

 41 E

 42 B

 43 D

 44 C

 45 E

 46 D

 47 C

 48 A

 49 B

 50 D

 51 B

 52 C

 53 E

 54 A

 55 B

 56 A

 57 D

 58 A

 59 C

 60 E

 61 A

 62 A

 63 D

 64 E

 65 A

 66 C

 67 A

 68 E

 69 C

 70 D

 71 A

 72 A

 73 B

 74 A

 75 A

 76 D

 77 B

 78 C

 79 D

 80 D

 81 A

 82 B

 83 A

 84 E

 85 A

 86 A

 87 E

 88 A

 89 A

 90 E

 91 A

 92 C

 93 D

 94 D

 95 B

 96 A

 97 D

 98 E

 99 D

 100 A

 101 D

 102 B

 103 C

 104 B

 105 D

 106 E

 107 A

 108 D

 109 A

 110 E

 111 C

 112 B

 113 E

 114 D

 115 A

 116 B

 117 D

 118 C

 119 E

 120 B

 121 D

 122 B

 123 E

 124 C

 125 E

 126 C

 127 C

 128 D

 129 D

 130 C

 131 C

 132 E

 133 D

 134 D

 135 D

 136 C

 137 E

 138 A

 139 C

 140 D

 141 A

 142 A

 143 C

 144 E

 145 D

 146 D

 147 D

 148 C

 149 D

 150 D

 151 D

 152 E

 153 B

 154 B

 155 B

 156 B

 157 A

 158 E

 159 E

 160 A

 161 D

 162 A

 163 A

 164 A

 165 C

 166 A

 167 A

 168 B

 169 B

 170 E

 171 A

 172 D

 173 C

 174 D

 175 C

 176 B

 177 C

 178 B

 179 B

 180 C

 181 D

 182 E

 183 D

 184 A

 185 C

 186 D

 187 B

 188 C

 189 E

 190 B

 191 D

 192 A

 193 D

 194 E

 195 E


Exam ID = 27 Apr 2011 16:30:06


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