If you are using the first practice exam - an error has been reported. For question 77 the correct answer should have been "a" - production of calcitonin.


                          10-234 STRUCTURE OF FARM ANIMALS

                                       Practice Final #3

                                Prof. H.J. Swatland



Where is the flank of a pig relative to its shoulder?

A. Ventral.

B. Distal.

C. Anterior.

D. Dorsal.

E. Posterior.



Where is the poll of a beef animal relative to the crest?

A. Ventral.

B. Proximal

C. Posterior.

D. Anterior.

E. Distal.



In which phylum would you place a shrimp?

A. Platyhelminthes.

B. Arthropoda.

C. Echinodermata.

D. Cnidaria.

E. Annelida.



Which produces fine wool?

A. Syncerus.

B. Poephagus.

C. Bos nomadicus.

D. Bos indicus.

E. Sus palustris.



Pigs from China centuries ago played an important part in the development of

modern pigs from the wild boar of Europe. Which is the Chinese pig?

A. Sus cristatus.

B. Sus vittatus.

C. Sus barbarus.

D. Sus meridionalis.

E. Sus scrofa.



Sus scrofa and S. vittatus may be identified how?

A. By the number of sternebrae.

B. By the number of rolls of turbinate bones in the nasal cavity.

C. By the shape of the lacrimal bone.

D. By the number of vertebrae.

E. By the shape of the mandible.



One of the following relating to prenatal development of piglets is NOT

correct.  Which one?

A. If its birth weight is less than about 1 kg, a pig will probably produce a

   carcass with poor muscling and a relatively large amount of fat.

B. Runts have fewer muscle fibres than normal-sized piglets.

C. Competition among piglets in the sow's uterus is strongly affected by their

   position in the uterus.

D. Breeds with few piglets per litter tend to have embryos with low growth rates.

E. Wild pigs have a shorter gestation period than modern pigs.



Many methods are used for genetic engineering of DNA and the manipulation of

prenatal development.  Which would NOT be a viable method for the transfer

of DNA?

A. Injection into the nucleus by high-speed impact.

B. Direct injection into the nucleus using a micropipette.

C. Using a virus to transfer DNA.

D. Movement of genes by neutron bombardment.

E. Uptake of DNA after precipitation with calcium phosphate.



What forms a roof over the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo?

A. Amniotic folds.

B. Allantoic folds.

C. Blastocoel.

D. Chorionic folds.

E. Trophoblast.



One of the following statements relating to embryology is NOT correct.  Which?

A. The blastopore opens into the archenteron.

B. The dorsal lip of the gastrula is part of the blastopore.

C. The hollow nerve cord induces the formation of the notochord.

D. Ectodermal cells exhibit competence for the formation of the nerve cord.

E. The archenteron is the central cavity of the gastrula.



What indicates the future anterior to posterior axis of a chick embryo?

A. Primitive streak.

B. Epiblast.

C. Hypoblast.

D. Amniotic folds.

E. Heart.



The most anterior and largest area in a fate map of the chick blastodisc is

destined to become?

A. Lateral plate mesoderm.

B. Somite.

C. Neural tissue.

D. Epidermis.

E. Notochord.



Where are the somites of a chick embryo?

A. Along left and right sides of the neural tube.

B. Embedded in pairs within the endoderm.

C. In the limb buds.

D. Arranged in pairs dorsal and ventral to the neural tube.

E. Forming segmental blocks through the lateral plate mesoderm.



Why is the myd gene important in meat animals?

A. Causes differentiation of myogenic cells.

B. Causes development chondrogenic cells.

C. Determines adult body size.

D. Causes development of the neural tube.

E. Terminates mitosis in the endoderm.



What is the embryological origin of the extraocular muscles in a chick?

A. Lateral plate mesoderm.

B. Sclerotome.

C. Somitic mesoderm.

D. Notochord.

E. Neural ectoderm.



Peripheral nerves have a complex structure. Which occurs on the surface of a

peripheral nerve?

A. Myelin.

B. Epineurium.

C. Perineurium.

D. Axonal plasma membranes.

E. Endoneurium.



Motor neurons contain many structures in the perikaryon.  Which is NOT located

in the perikaryon?

A. Neurotubules with a diameter of 20 nm.

B. Myelin.

C. Nissl granules.

D. Neurofilaments with a diameter of 10 nm.

E. Cisternae of rough endoplasmic reticulum.



What initiates muscle contraction when released into the synaptic cleft?

A. Acetylcholine.

B. Acetylcholinesterase.

C. Dendritic vesicles.

D. Butylcholine.

E. Butylcholinesterase.



The relative contribution of myotubes and secondary fibres to prenatal muscle

development in pigs has some important consequences in meat yield and meat

quality. Approximately how many myofibres are derived from myotubes?

A. 80%

B. 100%

C. 40%

D. 60%

E. 20%



Prenatal muscle development involves a number of different cellular structures.

Which exhibits cell division?

A. Premyoblast.

B. Myofibre.

C. Myoblast.

D. Secondary fibre.

E. Myotube.



When a premyoblast doubles its amount of DNA it is in which part of the

mitotic cycle?

A. G1

B. S

C. G2

D. M

E. At the quantal mitosis.



If sections are reacted for ATPase but there is NO pre-incubation - what


A. Mitocondria are stained.

B. Slow-contracting myofibres are not stained.

C. Myofibres in the centres of fasciculi are unstained.

D. All myofibres contain similar amounts of cobalt sulphide.

E. Fast-contracting myofibres are not stained.



Amylose stained by iodine is used in which histochemical reaction?

A. Phosphorylase.


C. Lipid staining.

D. ATPase.

E. Myofibre capillaries.



The redness of meat is related to the aerobic activity of living muscle.

Which is NOT correct?

A. Muscles with strong aerobic metabolism in the living animal use blood-borne

   oxidation for complete oxidation of substrates.

B. Muscles with strong anaerobic activity in the living animal can manage for a

   while without blood-borne oxygen.

C. Muscles used for respiration and chewing have low levels of aerobic metabolism

   in the living animal.

D. Muscle capillaries are located on the surfaces of myofibres and red muscles

   have more capillaries than white muscles.

E. Incomplete oxidation of muscle carbohydrates does not require oxygen from




What does NOT happen if a noose is tightened around a motor axon?

A. Decreased axonal diameter distally.

B. A large distal swelling.

C. A large swelling on the side of the noose towards the perikaryon.

D. A small swelling on the side of the noose towards the muscle.

E. A small distal swelling.



Rapid muscle growth is important for efficient meat production. Which is

NOT correct for young animals?

A. Recruitment of new white myofibres contributes to rapid muscle growth.

B. Red myofibres are required for postural muscle activity in young animals and

   they make the largest contribution to rapid muscle growth.

C. All myofibres exhibit hypertrophy in fast-growing young meat animals.

D. Rapid muscle growth may not contribute much to meat quality because it

   mostly originates from white myofibres.

E. Rapid muscle growth in young meat animals receives a major contribution from

   hypertrophy of white myofibres.



Theodore Schwann proved something very important for students of animal

structure.  Which statement is NOT correct?

A. Schwann proved all animal bodies are an assembly of single cells - most of

   which are mononucleate.

B. Schwann discovered myotubes in the prenatal development of pig muscle.

C. Schwann showed that multinucleate myofibres were derived by multiplication

   of nuclei without division of the cytoplasm.

D. Schwann discovered secondary fibres in the prenatal development of pig muscle.

E. The cells insulating axons with myelin are called Schwann cells.



How would you describe rigor mortis in beef?

A. When ATP is used in the polymerization of G-actin.

B. The increase in muscle extensibility which occurs after slaughter.

C. When ATP is resynthesized from ADP and causes the meat to soften.

D. When ATP is depleted and myosin molecule heads lock onto actin.

E. Loss of muscle extensibility caused by coagulation of myosin.



The H-zone is?

A. Between the ends of thin myofilaments half way down the A band.

B. Between the ends of thin myofilaments where they attach to the Z-line.

C. Part of the Z-line.

D. Between the ends of thick myofilaments half way down the A band.

E. Between the ends of thick myofilaments half way down the I band.



Where along the sarcomere do BOTH thick and thin myofilaments appear in

RELAXED muscle?

A. At the edges of the A band.

B. In the H-zone.

C. In the I band.

D. In the Z-line.

E. At the midlength of the A band.



In pork, where do transverse tubules occur along the length of the sarcomere?

A. In the H zone.

B. At the midlength of the I band.

C. At the midlength of the A band.

D. At the Z-line.

E. At the A-I junction.



Which protein makes the greatest contribution to the weight of lean beef?

A. Troponin

B. Myosin

C. Tropomyosin

D. Desmin.

E. Actin



If a myofibre is relaxed, where is its tropomyosin located?

A. In the groove of the thin myofilament.

B. On the surface of the thick myofilament between myosin molecule heads.

C. Forming a cross-bridge between actin and myosin.

D. In the groove on the thick myofilament.

E. Out of the groove in the thin myofilament.



Which is NOT correct in relation to the activation of phosphorylase in a

stressed pig?

A. Phosphorylase b kinase a activates phosphorylase in the presence of magnesium


B. Adrenaline activates adenyl cyclase.

C. Protein kinase activates phosphorylase b kinase b

D. Cyclic AMP activates protein kinase.

E. Adenyl cyclase produces ATP from cyclic AMP.



Glycogenin is?

A. Glucose units released by phosphorylase

B. Glucose units released by debranching enzyme

C. An enzyme responsible for glycogenolysis.

D. A polysaccharide made of glucose units.

E. A protein acting as the starting point for a new glycogen granule.



What is the basic reason meat normally becomes acidic after an animal has

been slaughtered?

A. To enable the reoxidation of NADH and the continuation of glycolysis.

B. Lactic acid is produced by bacterial fermentation.

C. To enable oxidative phosphorylation to continue.

D. Because mitochondria complete the Krebs cycle.

E. Because proteins are broken down to release pyruvic acid.



Electrical stimulation of beef carcasses is used in many Ontario abattoirs.

But which has NO effect on the electrical resistance of the carcass?

A. Carcass fatness.

B. Distance between electrodes.

C. Time lapse between exsanguination and stimulation.

D. Electrode location.

E. Whether or not the animal struggles during slaughter.



Which of the following statements relating to electrical stimulation of meat

is NOT correct?

A. Electrical stimulation may give meat a brighter than normal appearance.

B. Electrical stimulation may activate proteolytic enzymes in meat.

C. Electrical stimulation is not used on lamb because lamb seldom becomes tough.

D. Electrical stimulation does not work on meat unless the pH declines post mortem.

E. Electrical stimulation may cause myofibre fracture.



When a muscle strip in a rigorometer can still re-synthesize ATP - what is

the name given to that period on a rigorometer output?

A. Rapid phase.

B. Delay period.

C. Post-rigor phase.

D. Contracting phase.

E. Cold shortening phase.



Which is an unlikely cause of PSE if a pig is stress-resistant?

A. Cold water shower before slaughter.

B. Use of an electric prod to move pigs in the abattoir before slaughter.

C. Concussion with a captive bolt causing major post mortem reflex activity.

D. Mixing pigs so they fight before slaughter.

E. Cold winter weather.



Why is the early post mortem production of excessive lactate likely to

cause PSE?

A. It increases exsanguination and reduces the haemoglobin content of the meat.

B. It increases the negative electrostatic repulsion between myofilaments.

C. Myofibrillar proteins are still hot.

D. It decreases light scattering thus making meat pale.

E. Mitochondria still have oxygen and use the lactate aerobically.



If beef becomes dark-cutting - what can you deduce about the animal which

produced it?

A. It was well fed and resistant to stress.

B. It had excessive reflex activity during slaughter.

C. It was not properly stunned before exsanguination.

D. It struggled during slaughter.

E. It entered the abattoir without much glycogen in its muscles.



Which would be the most reliable indicator of dark-cutting beef?

A. Very low %Y.

B. A shift in the isobestic point.

C. Very low chromaticity coordinate y.

D. Very low chromaticity coordinate x.

E. Very high chromaticity coordinate y.



Which is NOT correct in relation to meat colour?

A. Scattering decreases the length of the light path through the meat.

B. Meat with a low pH is generally more pale than meat with a high pH.

C. Paleness related to pH is caused by light scattering.

D. Sarcoplasmic proteins may be precipitated in severe PSE pork.

E. The range in colour from red to brown originates from myofibrils.



There are numerous causes of the development of heat stable pink pigments in

cooked meat.  Which of the following is the least likely to be involved?

A. Breed of the animal.

B. High levels of nitrites in added spices.

C. Nitric oxide in oven gases.

D. Nitrite in ground water obtained from a well.

E. Carbon monoxide inhaled by animals from truck exhaust fumes.



Which biochemical type of collagen forms reticular fibres?

A. Heparin sulphate.

B. Type III.

C. Type II.

D. Type IV.

E. Type I.



Which is used to determine the collagen content of meat?

A. Alanine.

B. Hydroxyproline.

C. Glutamic acid.

D. Glycine.

E. Desmosine.



Why are Type I collagen fibres transversely striated when seen in a typical

electron micrograph?

A. Because collagen fibres are fluorescent.

B. Because collagen fibres are birefringent.

C. Tropocollagen molecules slide past each other like thick and thin myofilaments

   in sarcomeres of transverse striated myofibres.

D. Heavy metal stains typically fill the gaps between the ends of tropocollagen


E. Stains used in electron microscopy show the central axis of the triple helix

   of alpha chains in each tropocollagen molecule.



One of the following methods of temperature measurement should not be used to

judge the internal temperature reached while cooking beef hamburger.  Which?

A. Infrared thermometer.

B. Thermistor probe.

C. Quartz optical fibre probe with a fluorescent heat-sensor tip.

D. Thermocouple probe.

E. Callendar's thermometer probe.



Well-cooked stewing beef often falls into chunks.  Where is the tensile failure?

A. Endomysial elastin fibres.

B. Within sarcomeres.

C. Epimysial reticular fibres.

D. Overlap of thick and thin myofilaments.

E. Perimysial collagen fibres.



Which of the following does NOT contribute to the brown colour of well cooked


A. Denatured globin nicotinamide hemichrome

B. Haematin di-imadazole complexes

C. Metmyochromogen

D. Maillard reaction products

E. Metmyoglobin



What is muscular steatosis?

A. An enlargement of subcutaneous fat deposits over the animal's hindquarters.

B. Meat without much taste because it is very lean.

C. Omental fat not removed in the abattoir.

D. Replacement of myofibres by adipose cells.

E. Expansion of intermuscular fat.



Fat deposition may follow a complex pattern in pigs.  Which is NOT correct?

A. Lean breeds may have a greater ability to mobilize fat than fat breeds.

B. The deepest layer of subcutaneous fat may respond more readily than the outer

   layer for selection against fat deposition.

C. Fibroblast-like cells contribute to fat accumulation in pigs.

D. Newborn pigs have a large amount of fat relative to other animals.

E. Fatness is a highly heritable trait in pigs.



Which of the following statements relating to adipose tissue in meat animals

is NOT correct?

A. Mature adipose cells have very little cytoplasm.

B. Mature adipose cells have only one nucleus and this never divides.

C. The water content of fat is much lower than that of lean muscle.

D. Adipose cells are surrounded by a meshwork of Type III collagen fibres.

E. Adipose tissue has a poor circulation because it is primarily a storage tissue.



Fat quality in pork chops is very important commercially.  Which is NOT true?

A. Linoleic acid is used for feeding pigs because it makes the fat firm and white.

B. The aroma of fish oil in a pig's diet may be carried onward into the pig's fat.

C. Greasy pork fat has a low melting point.

D. Auto-oxidation and the formation of unpleasant odours increases when large

   numbers of the bonds in fatty acids are unsaturated.

E. Omega-3 fatty acids are thought beneficial by many consumers but their

   presence in pork fat may cause unpleasant odours after storage.



What do reticuloendothelial cells release?

A. Low density lipoproteins

B. New synthesized triglyceride

C. High density lipoproteins

D. Colipase

E. Very low density lipoproteins



Where does the glycerol originate when digested fatty acids are reassembled to

form triglyceride in a porcine adipose cell?

A. It is obtained from reticuloendothelial cells.

B. It is formed by restructuring fatty acids.

C. It is synthesized by lipoprotein lipase.

D. It is synthesized from glucose within the adipose cell.

E. It is formed from glycerol taken up by the adipose cell.



Bone density in cattle increases with age and varies between breeds. This

creates problems for which method of measuring fatness in meat animals?

A. Water content determined by antipyrin

B. Specific gravity


D. Photogrammetry




One growth equation generates a curve which is asymmetrical, sigmoidal

and reaches an asymptote.  Which?

A. Brody's

B. Autocatalytic

C. von Bertalanffy

D. Robertson's

E. Time-based



Animal growth is extremely important both scientifically and commercially.

Which is NOT correct?

A. The half lives of major proteins in meat are mostly several days in duration.

B. von Bertallanffy's growth equation is based on the balance of catabolism and


C. All living animals exhibit both anabolism and catabolism - even when their

   growth is complete.

D. Animal growth occurs when catabolism exceeds anabolism.

E. When animals are at a constant weight: catabolism = anabolism.



Allometric growth is one of many aspects of animal growth.  Which is NOT true?

A. One of the final aspects of allometric growth in pigs is the development of

   a convex shape in the ham.

B. Meat animals at birth have slender limbs relative to adults.

C. Allometric analysis shows ontogenetic changes but not changes produced by

   selective breeding (phylogenetic changes).

D. Meat animals at birth have a larger relative size of the head compared to

   adult animals.

E. One of the final aspects of allometric growth in cattle is the deposition of

   fat in high-priced cuts of meat.



Growth in cattle occurs in waves through the body.  Where is the final meeting

point of the two most important waves?  (Important for meat production).

A. At the hock.

B. At the crest.

C. At the scapula.

D. Posterior lumbar region.

E. Anterior lumbar region.



Which of the following regions of the beef carcass contains muscle groups

with the highest allometric growth ratios?

A. Shoulder

B. Paunch

C. Elbow

D. Thigh

E. Loin



Which has the highest priority to receive nutrients in Hammond's model for

energy partitioning?

A. Bone

B. Visceral fat

C. Central nervous system

D. Subcutaneous fat

E. Muscle



Which of the following general statements relating to animal growth is NOT


A. Animals seem to 'know' what weight they should be at a certain age.

B. Stress increases fat deposition.

C. Animals on a restricted diet often use proteins as a source of energy.

D. Insulin activates the energy capturing system of cells.

E. The action of insulin is balanced against the number of insulin receptors and

   their capacity for binding insulin.



What is the respiratory quotient?

A. Volume of carbon dioxide exhaled divided by the volume of oxygen used.

B. The volume of carbon dioxide and water vapour exhaled divided by the volume

   of oxygen inhaled.

C. The volume of water vapour exhaled divided by the volume of oxygen used.

D. The volume of oxygen inhaled divided by the amount of carbon dioxide inhaled.

E. The volume of urea in the urine divided by the amount of ammonia removed.



Satellite cells are identified several ways.  Which feature is NOT true for

satellite cells?

A. They are usually located in a depression on the myofibre surface.

B. They have a small amount of acidophilic cytoplasm.

C. The cytoplasm of satellite cells is separated from the cytoplasm (= sarcoplasm)

   of myofibres by TWO cell membranes.

D. Their nucleoli are difficult to see.

E. They are beneath the endomysium.



New myofibre nuclei are formed when myofibres regenerate.  Where do they

come from?

A. Exisiting myofibre nuclei.

B. Fibroblasts.

C. Satellite cells.

D. Pericytes.

E. Endothelial cells.



In the radial growth of myofibres, where are new myofilaments added?

A. Only at the ends of myofibres.

B. At the neuromuscular junction.

C. In the central axis of myofibrils.

D. Only under the cell membrane of the myofibre.

E. Around the outside of myofibrils.



How would you describe the relative lengths of extramuscular tendon and muscle

belly during growth of a pig?

A. The length of the muscle belly increases at a faster rate than that of the

   extramuscular tendon.

B. Extramuscular tendon length grows at the same rate as the length of the muscle


C. The extramuscular tendon shows more longitudinal growth than the muscle belly.

D. There is no relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle and the

   length of its extramuscular tendon.

E. There is no relationship between the length of the belly of a muscle and the

   length of its intramuscular tendon.



The complexity of muscle structure in meat animals makes it difficult to

measure longitudinal growth in myofibres - although it is important in meat

production.  Which is NOT true?

A. Pennate muscles have myofibres attached at an angle - often to an intramuscular


B. Once formed, myofilaments do not grow in length.

C. When myofibres grow in length, new sarcomeres are always added at the ENDS

   of the myofibres.

D. The length of myofibres is determined from the length of the fasciculi in which

   they are located.

E. When myofibrils grow in length, new sarcomeres are always added to the ENDS

   of the myofibrils.



What is the explanation for increases found in the number of myofibres at the

midlength of parallel-fibred muscles during the growth of pigs?

A. Formation of new myofibres from secondary fibres.

B. Growth of intrafascicularly terminating myofibres at a faster rate than the

   overall length of the muscle.

C. Formation of new myofibres from myotubes.

D. Decreases in fascicular length.

E. Formation of new myofibres from myoblasts.



What are intrafusal myofibres?

A. The myofibres which rotate the eyeball.

B. Myofibres located in the central axis of their fasciculi.

C. Very small myofibres inside neuromuscular spindles.

D. Myofibres which terminate intrafascicularly.

E. The extra myofibres causing muscle enlargement in double-muscled cattle.



Which muscle does NOT develop extra myofibres in double-muscled cattle?

A. Sartorius muscle.

B. Tongue muscle.

C. Extraocular muscle.

D. Cutaneous muscle under the skin.

E. Longissimus dorsi.



How would you describe reproductive performance in double-muscled cattle?

A. Shorter gestation period.

B. High lactation.

C. Underdevelopment of the reproductive tract in both sexes.

D. Wide pelvic opening in the cow.

E. Good nursing of the calf.



The shaft of the femur in a pork carcass is a?

A. Symphysis.

B. Condyle.

C. Epiphysis.

D. Epiphyseal plate.

E. Diaphysis.



Which is the best description for the canaliculi found in bone?

A. Very small tubes through the bone matrix between lacunae.

B. Structures connecting the periostium to the bone matrix.

C. The canals by which arteries pass through compact bone.

D. The cavity in which osteocytes are located.

E. The large canal containing an artery in the axis of a Haversian system.



What is the physiological effect of calcitonin?

A. Activates osteocytes.

B. Increases blood calcium.

C. Inhibits osteoclasts.

D. Activates osteoclasts.

E. Increases piezoelectric activity.



Somatomedin C is the same as?

A. IGF-1


C. IGF-2

D. Somatostatin




Which is produced by the liver?

A. Somatomedin.


C. Somatotropic hormone.

D. Growth hormone.

E. Somatotrophin.



Which of the following is NOT true in relation to cortisol?

A. Cortisol production is regulated by ACTH.

B. Cortisol production is affected by CRF.

C. There is not much free or unbound cortisol in the blood of rested meat animals.

D. Cortisol is a peptide hormone acting on the myofibre membrane.

E. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid.



The primary decision in beef grading is?

A. Subcutaneous fat depth.

B. Animal age revealed by ossification.

C. Fat colour.

D. Longissimus thoracis area.

E. Colour of the meat.



What is the typical result of a high level of carotene in a beef animal's diet?

A. Dark-cutting beef.

B. Increased area of Longissimus dorsi.

C. Yellow fat.

D. Excessive subcutaneous fat.

E. Advanced ossification.



In Canada, which primal cut of beef contains the cervical vertebrae?

A. Rib.

B. Chuck.

C. Plate.

D. Brisket.

E. Sticking.



There is some confusion about the origin of sweetbreads and even an edition

of the Oxford English Dictionary is incorrect.  What are they?

A. Large lymph nodes.

B. Pancreas.

C. Thyroid gland.

D. Adrenal gland.

E. Thymus gland.



One of the following statements relating to evisceration of cattle in an

abattoir is correct.  Which one?

A. The hide is removed as rapidly as possible.  Cuts through the hide are not a

   serious problem because not much leather is produced in Canada any more.

B. A saw cut is made through the hide and the sternum to facilitate removal of

   the lungs.

C. The first step after sticking is the removal of the head and lower jaw, with

   the hide from that region left hanging on the remainder of the hide still

   covering the carcass.

D. The anus is not closed off because the animal is now suspended by one hindlimb

   and there is no risk of faecal material escaping onto the meat of the carcass.

E. The intestines are removed before the penis or udder tissue which is left

   hanging to one side for removal at a later time.



Antemortem inspection of beef is an important part of meat inspection.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Animals unable to walk normally are separated from the others and slaughtered


B. Animals with obvious signs of sickness are separated from all healthy animals

   and slaughtered separately.

C. Antemortem inspection of abattoir animals is important for the detection of

   serious animal diseases in the general population.

D. The meat inspector is not responsible for ensuring cattle are slaughtered

   humanely because this is the responsibility of the local humane society.

E. A zoonosis is a disease of animals which may be transmitted to humans,

   and the plural is zoonoses.



Which is the main lymph node of the pig's head inspected post-mortem?

A. Suborbital.

B. Submaxillary.

C. Salivary.

D. Subclavian.

E. Retropharyngeal.



Blood from abattoir animals such as the pig can be used for human consumption.

But there are many complexities involved.  Which statement is NOT correct?

A. Pig blood contains easily assimilated iron and may be used for a variety of

   human and pet foods.

B. Blood proteins have a high water-binding capacity which is useful in the

   formulation of convenience foods.

C. Plasma is a yellow fluid and may be dried to a powder for use in human food.

D. Blood proteins have a high nutritional value and are used after isolation in

   a variety of different food product.

E. Red blood cells shrink if water is added to blood and this is how they are

   removed in the production of blood plasma products.



Which of the following statements relating to abattoir stunning for pigs is

NOT correct?

A. The typical order of steps in pig slaughter is as follows:- (1) stunning;

   (2) hoist the pig up by one hindlimb using a shackling chain; and (2)


B. Pigs may be stunned by concussion using a captive bolt pistol.  The stunner is

   normally used in the midline of the skull posterior to the eyes over the frontal


C. Pigs may be stunned using 65% carbon dioxide gas.  Carbon dioxide gas is

   heavier than air and the pigs are exposed to the gas by taking them into

   a tunnel or pit.  The pigs would recover consciousness if not exsanguinated

   after leaving the stunner.

D. Pigs may be stunned electrically using a direct current across the brain or

   from the brain along the spinal cord.

E. In carbon dioxide stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the gas level at 65%

   and in electrical stunning of pigs it is essential to keep the electrodes clean.



Wool is an important product of sheep production. Which is NOT correct?

A. Wool is formed by epithelial cells of a papilla at the base of a hair follicle.

B. Both wool and pig's bristles are made of the same protein - keratin.

C. Cross-linking of wool protein is by disulphide bonds which is why sulphur is

   important in the nutrition of wool sheep.

D. Wavy wool fibres of a fleece have an enlarged medulla which is very soft.

E. Each hair follicle develops from an inpushing of the epidermis.



In Ontario the fresh-water snail Lymnaea bulimoides is the intermediate

host for an important parasite of our farm animals.  Which parasite?

A. Taenia solium.

B. Taenia saginata.

C. Fasciola hepatica.

D. Echinococcus granulosus.

E. Trichinella spiralis.



Which of the following statements relating to lamb slaughter is NOT correct?

A. Both internal visceral fat and cod fat are removed from lamb carcasses.

B. A shrink loss of 12% for a lamb carcass held at 2 degrees C for 24 hours would

   not be regarded as unusual because the lamb has a high surface to volume ratio

   and may not have much subcutaneous fat to prevent evaporation.

C. The carotid lymph nodes are inspected post-mortem.

D. A typical dressing percentage for lambs is 45 to 50%

E. The kidneys are regarded as part of the carcass.



Poultry giblets are collected in the abattoir for further processing or

to be passed to the consumer.  Which is NOT part of the giblets?

A. Gizzard wall.

B. Kidneys.

C. Liver.

D. Heart.

E. Neck.



Which of the following best describes the reproductive system of a rooster?

A. The rooster has a long and highly coiled vas deferens on each side of the body

   opening directly into the cloaca.

B. A rooster normally has only one testis derived from the left side.  But it is

   located in the midline of the bird under the vertebral column near the


C. The rooster differs from male farm mammals in not having an epididymis located

   on the testis.

D. A rooster has two testes located near the kidneys.  The vas deferens from the

   left side joins the vas deferens from the right side and they open into the

   cloaca on a single papilla.

E. A rooster has two testes located next to the cloaca and connected to it by

   the vas deferens.



The caecum has an important function in the gut of a rooster.  Which of the

following is CORRECT?

A. The pancreas drains directly into the single large caecum.

B. There are two caeca located at the end of the small intestine.

C. There is a large caecum at the junction of the small and large intestines.

D. There are two small caeca located at the end of the large intestine.

E. There is one caecum just before the cloaca.



Which of the following statements relating to the nervous system is NOT


A. The outermost layers of the brain are grey.

B. The membranes covering the brain are called the meninges.

C. The outermost layers of the spinal cord are grey.

D. The innermost layers of the brain are white.

E. The pia mater is below the dura mater.



What part of the brain controls heart rate?

A. Cerebral hemisphere.

B. Hypothalamus.

C. Medulla oblongata.

D. Thalamus.

E. Cerebellum.



The pig's brain is divided into a number of major parts which are easily

visible.  But also physiological experiments reveal the functions of

various parts.  Where is the motor cortex of the pig located?

A. Thalamus.

B. Medulla oblongata.

C. Hypothalamus.

D. Cerebrum.

E. Cerebellum.



Which glands are strongly related to pheromone production in male pigs?

A. Abnormal development of mammary glands.

B. Bulbourethral glands

C. Urethral lymph gland.

D. Cavernosus glands.

E. Seminal vesicles.



Which of the following statements relating to the reproductive system of

the bull is NOT correct?

A. Cavernosus muscles involved in extension of the penis are attached half way

   along the sigmoid flexure.

B. The seminal vesicles receive spermatozoa and are located on the bladder.

C. The bull's penis has a large sigmoid flexure to enable extension.

D. The urethra receives spermatozoa from the seminal vesicles.

E. The epididymis is located on the surface of the testis and leads to the

   vas deferens.



The cremaster muscle has a unique function.  What is it?

A. Raises the tail when the male is mating.

B. Acts as a sphincter to reduce the diameter of the vagina after mating.

C. Causes arching of the sow's back during mating.

D. Raises the testes in the scrotum.

E. Retracts the penis in the boar but not in the bull or ram.



The heart is made of a special type of muscle.  What is the best description

of its histology?

A. Striated, branched, multinucleated fibres.

B. Layers of mononucleate cells.

C. Unbranched fibres composed of mononucleated cells.

D. Branched fibres composed of cells which usually have one nucleus.  Cells at

   branch points may have two nuclei.

E. Unbranched, multinucleated, striated fibres.



In the nephron of a meat animal such as the pig, where would you expect to

find the proximal convoluted tubule?

A. In the glomerulus of the nephron.

B. Immediately connected with the collecting tubule.

C. In the Bowman's capsule.

D. In the pyramid of the kidney.

E. Immediately before the loop of Henle.



What pumps blood through the bicuspid valve in the the bovine heart?

A. Right ventricle.

B. Left atrium.

C. Right atrium.

D. No chamber pumps blood through the bicuspid valve because it is the valve that

   prevents back-flow into the vena cava.

E. Left ventricle.



The trapezius in the sheep is located where?

A. A strap-like muscle located laterally in the neck and thus severed during


B. Dorsal to the rhomboideus.

C. Ventral to the rhomboideus.

D. In the deep groove on the dorsal and lateral part of the scapula.

E. Medial to the scapula.



Name a muscle overlying the sternum.

A. Biceps brachii.

B. Rhomboideus.

C. Trapezius.

D. Pectoralis profundus.

E. Triceps brachii.



Which of the following statements relating to the forelimb skeleton of

meat animals is NOT correct?

A. The ball and socket joint between the scapula and the humerus is relatively

   flat - at least compared to the ball and socket joint in the hindlimb.

B. The olecranon is located on the distal end of the ulna.

C. The radius is shorter than the ulna.

D. The prominent ridge located laterally on the scapula is called the spine

   of the scapula.

E. The radius is parallel to the ulna.



In the muscles of a whole beef round, which is a thin strap-like muscle

located anteriorly to the gracilis?

A. Semimembranosus.

B. Rectus femoris.

C. Semitendinosus.

D. Pectineus.

E. Sartorius.



Which muscle is NOT in contact with gracilis in the beef hindlimb?

A. Sartorius.

B. Semimembranosus.

C. Adductor.

D. Semitendinosus.

E. Pectineus.



Beef animals have a complex pelvic structure.  But which does NOT occur on

the pelvis?

A. Symphysis pubis.

B. Greater sciatic notch.

C. Glenoid cavity.

D. Obturator foramen.

E. Acetabulum.



The chicken has digits on its wings and legs.  What is the total number?

A. 14

B. 8

C. 10

D. 16

E. 12



Which is a major weight-bearing bone in the chicken leg distal and in contact

with the patella?

A. Tarsometatarsus.

B. Femur.

C. Tarsus.

D. Fibula.

E. Tibiotarsus.



Which of the following is a feature of the chicken pelvis NOT found in the

beef pelvis?

A. Lack of a symphysis pubis.

B. Fusion between the ilium and pubis.

C. Fusion between the pubis and ischium.

D. Fusion between the ilium and certain sacral vertebrae.

E. An acetabulum.



The cores of egg yolks are present in the ovary of the newly hatched hen.

How long does it take for the rest of the egg to develop?

A. 7 hours.

B. 14 days.

C. 1 day.

D. 14 hours.

E. 7 days.



What would be the size of an egg weighing 56 grams?

A. Extra large.

B. Peewee.

C. Large.

D. Small.

E. Medium.



The blastoderm of a hen's egg occurs where?

A. In the centre of the yolk.

B. On the chalazae.

C. In the germinal disc.

D. In the air cell.

E. In the chalaziferous layer.



Exam ID =  5 Apr 2006 13:23:19


Exam ID =  5 Apr 2006 13:23:19

Practice Final #3


 1 A

 2 D

 3 B

 4 B

 5 B

 6 C

 7 E

 8 D

 9 A

 10 C

 11 A

 12 D

 13 A

 14 A

 15 C

 16 B

 17 B

 18 A

 19 E

 20 A

 21 B

 22 D

 23 A

 24 C

 25 B

 26 B

 27 C

 28 D

 29 A

 30 A

 31 E

 32 B

 33 E

 34 E

 35 E

 36 A

 37 E

 38 C

 39 B

 40 E

 41 C

 42 E

 43 A

 44 E

 45 A

 46 B

 47 B

 48 D

 49 A

 50 E

 51 E

 52 D

 53 D

 54 E

 55 A

 56 C

 57 D

 58 B

 59 C

 60 D

 61 C

 62 D

 63 B

 64 C

 65 B

 66 A

 67 B

 68 C

 69 E

 70 B

 71 D

 72 B

 73 C

 74 C

 75 C

 76 E

 77 A

 78 C

 79 A

 80 A

 81 D

 82 B

 83 C

 84 B

 85 E

 86 C

 87 D

 88 B

 89 E

 90 D

 91 D

 92 C

 93 B

 94 B

 95 A

 96 B

 97 C

 98 C

 99 D

 100 B

 101 A

 102 D

 103 D

 104 E

 105 B

 106 B

 107 D

 108 B

 109 E

 110 D

 111 C

 112 A

 113 E

 114 A

 115 B

 116 C

 117 C


Exam ID =  5 Apr 2006 13:23:19


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